The Father isn't the son of man. I agree.
The Father isn’t the Son of God or the Son of Man.
You claiming the Father isn't the Holy Spirit is just your indoctrinated opinion. That cannot be proven with scripture,
Nothing to do with indoctrination and everything to do with study and sound reasoning. The Father and the Holy Spirit are always kept distinct—the Father sends the Spirit; the Spirit proceeds from the Father. Both of those statements speak of distinctness.
The Spirit intercedes on our behalf before the Father (Rom 8:26-27), which only makes sense if they are distinct. It’s nonsense to say a person intercedes before himself or herself.
The “Spirit searches … the depths of God;” the Spirit “comprehends the thoughts of God;” and believes receive “the Spirit who is from God” (2 Cor 2:10-12). These all speak of the Spirit being in some way distinct from God, although he is God.
but I can and have shown (as have others) that the Father is spirit and to that the Holy Spirit refers to the spirit of the FATHER.
I have never seen it shown. The Holy Spirit is referred to with several names, including, in a single verse, the Spirit of God and Spirit of Christ (Rom 8:9). 1 Pet 1:11 also calls the Holy Spirit the Spirit of Christ, referencing back to the OT.
Actually; it says "in the beginning" where as GOD is eternal and apart from any beginning. This "beginning" actually coincides with Genesis' "in the beginning" when GOD started speaking things into existence. We can't say anything past that about when GOD spoke or time/ space began. We can say that GOD spoke everything into existence with HIS Word though.
As I showed, and you didn't address, When John says "In the beginning was," grammatically it means that when the beginning began, the Word was already in already existence. That is absolute existence, just as the Father has absolute existence, hence why John is consistent and says that "the Word was God." Yet, he very clearly states that the Word was in intimate relationship with another--"the Word was with God"--for all eternity past. It's also why Jesus can claim the name I Am (John 8:58) and it's not blasphemy.
It is repeated again in verse 2--"the Word was in the beginning with"--which means it is important; John is emphasizing the point. Verse 3 puts it all to rest by saying that not one thing has come into being (
egeneto) without the Word. It necessarily follows that the Word cannot have come into being. This also reinforces what was said in verses 1 and 2.
Paul repeats the exact same line of reasoning in 1 Cor 8:6 and Col 1:16-17.
The Word of GOD returning to GOD is not GOD sharing HIS glory; it's HIS Word returning to HIM.
Again, Jesus clearly states that he shard in the glory of the Father prior to creation (John 17:5). This is consistent with what John states in 1:1-3 and Jesus's claim to be the I Am.
Actually; GOD is love towards creation. Not just some vague usage that must imply three GOD almighties. GOD so loved the world...?
No, on both counts. You don't seem to be understanding that John says "God is love." That is in the same manner as saying "God is spirit." God cannot
not be spirit and he cannot
not be love; both are essential characteristics of his nature. For love to be an essential characteristic of his nature, he had to actually be expressing that love. This isn't "just some vague usage," it's based on the very definition and highest expression of love, which one should fully expect from God, if he is truly God.
If God needs creation in order to love, then love is not an essential characteristic of his nature and, therefore, it cannot be said that "God is love," and he cannot be God. God loved the world
because God is love and was in loving communion with the Son and the Holy Spirit for all eternity past.
Sure it does. There isn't a verse in scripture that doesn't align with what I believe
There is a lot, and much of what I have given in this thread you have yet to actually deal with.
...and it's actually sound. Conversely; you won't find a single verse in the whole book claiming GOD is three anything; let alone persons.
It's about the evidence and putting the pieces together.
You won't see it mention any man or son of man being coequal or coeternal either.
Why would a man be coeternal? Men are, by definition, created beings. As for the Son of Man, the Son of God, there is much that either implies or explicitly states that he is coequal and coeternal.
There isn't a sound point to the whole Trinity doctrine. It cannot be intelligibility defended in any way; with or without scripture.
It's been intelligently defended for millennia. If there was nothing in the Bible to support it, it would have never come to be the central doctrine of Christianity, or even if it had, it would have died out long ago. It wasn't created in a vacuum.
Go ahead and show me a single verse that shows the will of GOD being done apart from the Holy Spirit of GOD ultimately doing it.
All three persons continually act together, because they are each truly and fully God, being of the same substance and each interpenetrates the others. We see this in creation with God speaking and "the Spirit hovering over the face of the waters." This is why Jesus can say the Father is in him and he is in the Father, yet he does things by the power of the Holy Spirit. Each member of the Trinity has a different role in the salvation of humans and redemption of creation. The Son is the primary member of the Trinity who came in the flesh (John 1:1-4; Phil 2:5-8) but yet the Father and the Holy Spirit still are in and with Christ, working.