tim-from-pa
Member
- Aug 4, 2005
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Sorry, I asked another question in post #32 here it is again....
How do you understand the pronoun 'he' in this scripture, being used for the Comforter?
Joh 14:26 and the Comforter, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things, and remind you of all things that I said to you.
The parsing for the Comforter is masculine singular. The parsing is the same for 'he', masculine singular.
http://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/14-26.htm
OK, this is the only question I am answering up to post 40 that has to do with the topic at hand, so I'm going to answer this and be off for the day doing other things.
Using a pronoun is in itself weak in proving a person. Several times it's also translated it or itself, so which is it now? My understanding of Greek (I read Hebrew better albeit like a 5-year old who sounds out English ) is that the nouns have masculine or feminine genders attached. It's sort of like Spanish I remember taking years ago. Nouns have a masculine or feminine gender attached to them, although the noun is not necessarily a living being (it could be a car-carro, the "o" signifying masculine. Gato is unspecified or tomcat, gata is female, etc). But when translating to English (we have no masculine or feminine) we would attach the pronoun he or she. "She's a beautiful ship" is something a Captain might say of his ship. But we know the ship is not a female entity, but rather "pronouned" that way. So the translators translated the Spirit of God that way when an accurate translation would be neuter "it's a beautiful ship". So we specify a person(al) masculine as he, feminine as she and neuter as it without specifying it in the noun.