Douglas Summers,
The first two mentions of an ekklesia (commonly translated "church" in the English translations) in the NT are in Matthew (16:18, 18:17).
The second reference obviously refers to a practical and visible expression that is local. Which, from the perspective of Christianity, is apparently my lone opinion.
The context of Matt 16:18 is Matt 16:13-20. Together with the RCC, I think the context is about Peter. Many say that it's about Jesus being the Messiah or Peter's declaration that Jesus is the Messiah. But if Jesus' messiahship is the important thing in this context, why would he tell, "his disciples that they should tell no man that he was Jesus the Christ" (v.20)? If it was so important as to be the key to this context, his charge would make no sense and would be counter-productive. This charge was not countermanded until after Jesus' resurrection (Matt 20:16-20).
Simon's name "Peter" was given to him by Jesus (v. 18). The English name Peter translates the Greek word "Petros", which means "rock". Peter declared the true nature of the Christ (vs. 16). Jesus' response was that he would build his ekklesia on a rock (v. 17-18). Not on just any rock, but "on this rock". What rock would that be? Seeing as he just called Simon the Rock? To whom did Jesus give the keys of the kingdom (v. 19)? Seems self-evident to me that Peter is the subject of this context.
To be contextually consistent with the second reference in Matt 18, Matt 16 must also refer to a practical and visible ekklesia that is local. Because the ekklesia referred to in Matt 16 is the same ekklesia referred to in Matt 18. In Matt 16, Jesus prophesied about Peter as a strong leader (the Rock) in a particular Ekklesia. The fulfillment of that prophecy is clearly seen in Acts 1-15. The venue in the prophecy is the ekklesia in Jerusalem, a local expression. Not a universal expression (as claimed by the RCC, and apparently by most Protestants.).
Acts is a history of the ekklesia in the 1st century. There is no record of a universal ekklesia in Acts. Only local ekklesia.
The rest of the NT only mentions local ekklesia beginning with the ekklesia in Rome to the seven ekklesia mentioned in Revelation 1-3.
There's mention of ekklesia in the plural, as in several ekklesia in several cities in a province (e.g., Gal 1:2). The plural is used 4 times in Acts (9:31, 15:41, 16:5, 19:37). And 19 times in the letters, 13 of which are in the two Corinthian letters. But no universal ekklesia.
When one reads Christian history, it's helpful to see that the idea of The Church and the idea of The Pope developed together. And that both ideas are the result of historical development, not the Bible. There is no ground in the Bible for a universal Church or a Pope. And since not Biblical, one can't even say that either is an interpretation of the Biblical (though the Bible is interpreted to conform to the ideas). They're based on a perceived necessity and developed from there after the 1st century. The historians of Christianity never bother to delete the facts. Though like any reporter, they might try to put a spin on it for a certain cause. So that what the facts prove become a matter of opinion.
The idea of a universal Church is strictly a historical development. And since I read the Bible before I interacted with Christianity, instead of after, I've never followed historical development. I've only followed the Bible. According to how I initially read it. According to how Jesus through the Spirit has given me understanding. Apart from the accruements of Christian interpretations and Christian historical developments.
The idea of "The Church" is part of Christian history and Christianity. Like Trinitarianism. Neither of which has any ground in the Bible. But a lot of ground in Christian history. Depends on what one wants to follow. To the one to whom history is important, to that one a historically based religion will be important.
The mystery of the church that Israel was not aware of was that the Gentiles would be part of the body of Christ, making one new man out of the two. (The Epistle to the Ephesians)
The mystery is the making of one new man out of the two. Jew and Gentile. In Christ. In the blood of Christ (Eph 2:13). The mystery is not of "The Church". Yet Israel was so blinded by their own sense of self-importance that they didn't realize that the Gentiles would be included in the one new man. The "Church" mentioned in chaps. 2-3 refers to a local expression. In this instance the "church" in Ephesus (Eph 1:1). I prefer the transliteration "ekklesia" so as to preclude the confusion caused by using the translation "church" that is evident here.
After the resurrection, physical Israel of the OT ceased to exist as Israel. Paul showed there is a new Israel composed of Jews and Gentiles (Rom 9-11; Gal 6:15-16; see Phil 3:30 NASB). One should not be fooled by interpretations to the contrary. Nor fooled by that contemporary nation that calls itself Israel. Today, those who are in Christ, whether formerly Jew or Gentile, are the Israel of God (1 Pet 2:9).
kingdom of priest and kings
Is NOT manifested in Christianity (1 Pet 2:1-10, 5:1-4; see Acts 2:42-44 & Heb 13:15-16). The temporal imitation of the RCC in its hierarchy and Mass is just that, an imitation (easily seen by the multitude of religious accoutrements). It's totally lost in the temporal hierarchies of the Protestant denominations amidst their sermon services (an apparent priesthood and kingship exercised by one man). Christianity manifests something more akin to feudalism in its denominationalism, than a kingdom of priests.
The Apostles were unlearned fishermen
They knew enough to recognize the Messiah when they saw him. Unlike the learned religious leaders. They knew enough to follow that Messiah instead of the Tradition of men. Unlike the learned religious leaders.
Christianity thinks highly of its institutions of formal education (higher learning) due to its temporal frame of mind. Paul was "learned" in that he had the best Jewish formal education available in his era. But he didn't think it amounted to much (Phil 3:4-12). That which he wrote about came to him through a different source (Gal 1:15-24). Through which it also should be understood today.
The Bible does not have the word trinity...But it testifies to a trinity. (
Gen. 1:24-27).
I could say a great deal in response to this statement. Seeing as I'm not a Trinitarian.
(Edited, ToS 2.14: "If a member disagrees with a Moderator's action, they are not to take their dispute public." Obadiah)
Unlike Christians, I understand the Bible from front to back. The Bible was written and compiled in that way. According to the will of God. In Christianity, the Bible is understood according to the will of man through the idea of interpreted progressive revelation. Back to front. As if each new release interprets all that went before. Is historical doctrinal development a history of such releases? The RCC thinks so.
God has always been straightforward in his revelation. According to the only record we have. The OT is the revelation. The NT is a record of the fulfillment of a part of that revelation (see Hebrews). The NT writers quote the OT writings. Not the other way around. If they interpreted what they quoted, then they have gone against what they themselves regarded as the real revelation (2 Tim 3:16-17). Which would make them liars, and we are still in our sins.
The NT should be understood according to the OT revelation. Not the OT according to an interpretation of the NT record of fulfillment.
The word Bible not being in the Bible is a mute subject. I just mentioned it to show how people can make a mute subject an argument.
I don't see this matter as a moot subject. As a moot subject, it would imply the Bible is less important, less meaningful, than its interpretations. And it would be reasonable to regard the Bible as just another collection of writings written and compiled by man alone. Not to mention the perpetuation of interpretation among those who would rather regard the Bible as something more. A paradoxical irony that encourages Atheism.
There must be two witnesses (John 8:17-18). First is the witness without, a thing, the Bible. Second is the witness within, a person, Jesus who gives the seeker understanding of the Bible through the Holy Spirit.
The two witnesses work together as if one witness for the one God and of the one God. A God unseen in his true nature by those who do not accept one or both witnesses. Whether through interpretation or by outright rejection.
(Edited, ToS 2.14: "If a member disagrees with a Moderator's action, they are not to take their dispute public." Obadiah)
Only idiots argue simply to argue. Having little of importance to occupy them.
Arguing with idiots makes one an idiot.