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What does the Word say about the Law of YHWH which, in reality, is the Law of Moses?

Actually what was said was Abraham was declared righteous, before he was circumcised.

10 How then was it accounted? While he was circumcised, or uncircumcised? Not while circumcised, but while uncircumcised.
11 And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had while still uncircumcised, that he might be the father of all those who believe, though they are uncircumcised, that righteousness might be imputed to them also,
12 and the father of circumcision to those who not only are of the circumcision, but who also walk in the steps of the faith which our father Abraham had while still uncircumcised.
13
For the promise that he would be the heir of the world was not to Abraham or to his seed through the law, but through the righteousness of faith.
Romans 4:10-13

... but who also walk in the steps of the faith which our father Abraham had while still uncircumcised.

The steps of faith always include the work of obedience.
Faith without this work of obedience is dead.

Consider from the beginning when Abraham was called...

8 By faith Abraham obeyed when he was called to go out to the place which he would receive as an inheritance. And he went out, not knowing where he was going. Hebrews 11:8

This was the beginning of the righteous walk of faith for Abraham.

1 Now the Lord had said to Abram: "Get out of your country, From your family And from your father's house, To a land that I will show you.
2 I will make you a great nation; I will bless you And make your name great; And you shall be a blessing. Genesis 12:1-2

Now if Abraham would have stayed in his own country, with his family, and not gone out to the land God had called him to, then there would be no great nation coming from him.

That would be unbelief which is the same word as disobedience.

Since therefore it remains that some must enter it, and those to whom it was first preached did not enter because of disobedience,
Hebrews 4:6 NKJV


Seeing therefore it remaineth that some must enter therein, and they to whom it was first preached entered not in because of unbelief:
Hebrews 4:6 KJV


By faith Abraham obeyed when he was called to go out to the place which he would receive as an inheritance. And he went out, not knowing where he was going. Hebrews 11:8

Abraham was declared righteous because he obeyed God by faith, and not before.


JLB
"5 He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in righteousness..." (Titus 3:5 NASB)

Abraham did lots of deeds in righteousness, yet none of them made him righteous. Paul says, not even our deeds done in righteousness are why we are saved. Our faith apart from works--even works done in righteous--does that all by itself.
 
If the perfect tense categorically by definition means irreversible then I'm curious why Paul exhorts us to not be overcome by evil--Romans 12:21 NASB (you say 'overcome/conquered' means forever).
In Roms 12:21 it's the same root word, just not in the same tense as is used in the 1John verse I mentioned and asked you to reconcile with your doctrine.

The first occurence is
  • νικῶ nikō conquer; overcome; prevail
    verb, present, passive, imperative, second person, singular
The second is:
  • νίκα nika conquer; overcome; prevail
    verb, present, active, imperative, second person, singular
Yet in 1 John 2:14 it's a perfect tense verb:
  • νενικήκατε nenikēkate conquer; overcome; prevail
    verb, perfect, active, indicative, second person, plural
http://ntgreek.net/lesson23.htm#perfect

View attachment 6206
 
"5 He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in righteousness..." (Titus 3:5 NASB)

Abraham did lots of deeds in righteousness, yet none of them made him righteous. Paul says, not even our deeds done in righteousness are why we are saved. Our faith apart from works--even works done in righteous--does that all by itself.

The only thing that saves us is our obedient response to the Gospel.

The only thing that made Abraham righteous was his obedience to God when God told him to do something.

The thing that brought death upon all mankind was disobedience/unbelief by Adam.

Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned--
Romans 5:12

(Edit, A&T Guidelines: "You may ask a member questions as to what they believe on certain topics relative to the subject of the thread, but please keep in mind the member is under no obligation to answer." This includes not answering to your satisfaction. Obadiah)


JLB
 
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In Roms 12:21 it's the same root word, just not in the same tense as is used in the 1John verse I mentioned and asked you to reconcile with your doctrine.

The first occurence is
  • νικῶ nikō conquer; overcome; prevail
    verb, present, passive, imperative, second person, singular
The second is:
  • νίκα nika conquer; overcome; prevail
    verb, present, active, imperative, second person, singular
Yet in 1 John 2:14 it's a perfect tense verb:
  • νενικήκατε nenikēkate conquer; overcome; prevail
    verb, perfect, active, indicative, second person, plural
http://ntgreek.net/lesson23.htm#perfect

View attachment 6206
You honestly can't see in what you posted that Perfect Tense does not categorically mean never ending and will always be the way it is right now?
 
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The only thing that saves us is our obedient response to the Gospel.

The only thing that made Abraham righteous was his obedience to God when God told him to do something.

The thing that brought death upon all mankind was disobedience/unbelief by Adam.

Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned--
Romans 5:12


(Edit, A&T Guidelines: "You may ask a member questions as to what they believe on certain topics relative to the subject of the thread, but please keep in mind the member is under no obligation to answer." This includes not answering to your satisfaction. Obadiah)



JLB
(Removed. Response to a deleted portion of a post. Obadiah)

What you have yet to explain is how your doctrine can say Noah (or Abraham) was saved on the basis of his deeds done in righteousness in complete contradiction to Paul that said we are NOT saved on the basis of deeds done in righteousness (Titus 3:5 NASB)
 
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Uh, JLB....I did answer it.

What you have yet to explain is how your doctrine can say Noah (or Abraham) was saved on the basis of his deeds done in righteousness in complete contradiction to Paul that said we are NOT saved on the basis of deeds done in righteousness (Titus 3:5 NASB)


(Edit, A&T Guidelines: "You may ask a member questions as to what they believe on certain topics relative to the subject of the thread, but please keep in mind the member is under no obligation to answer." Obadiah)

Like the scripture teaches us in Hebrews about Noah, the Gospel requires that we obey the Gospel message.

Repent for the kingdom of God is at hand.

Those who believe and are Baptised will be saved. Mark 16.

(A&T guidelines:Subsequent opposing responses should include references to supportive scripture relevant to the thread and offer explanation for the contrary understanding." Citing an entire chapter does not satisfy this requirement. You need to cite the relative verses that apply to the point you are making. Obadiah)
 
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Matthew 19:29 (LEB) And everyone who has left houses or brothers or sisters or father or mother or wife or children or fields on account of my name will receive a hundred times as much, and will inherit eternal life.(in a new land)
Amazing!
That's it!
 
You honestly can't see in what you posted that Perfect Tense does not categorically mean never ending and will always be the way it is right now?
That's correct.
As the NT Greek instructor I referenced points out:
"If you remember that the meaning of the word perfect is complete, then you can remember that the perfect tense has to do with completed action. But the perfect tense is a primary tense because it emphasizes the present, or ongoing result of a completed action."
With this instruction in mind read what John says to these believers;

1 John 2:14 (LEB) ...I have written to you, young men, because you are strong, and the word of God resides in you, and you have conquered the evil one.
Where by the author John (not me, not 'my doctrine', not any so-called circular reasoning on my part that you accused me of) is quite intentionally emphasizing that the action (conquered) is a presently completed, ongoing action. i.e. It has been perfectly completed already/now.

(Edit, A&T Guidelines: "You may ask a member questions as to what they believe on certain topics relative to the subject of the thread, but please keep in mind the member is under no obligation to answer." This includes not answering to your satisfaction. Obadiah)

Apply/test your hypothesis (men can loose their salvation under this New Covenant, yes or no?) to this passage. How can these young men (not to mention The Word of God residing in them) later become defeated by evil yet John be right about them having conquered evil completly already?
 
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As the NT Greek instructor I referenced points out:
"If you remember that the meaning of the word perfect is complete, then you can remember that the perfect tense has to do with completed action. But the perfect tense is a primary tense because it emphasizes the present, or ongoing result of a completed action."​
...up to the present.

That hardly guarantees the action must continue forever, and ever, and ever with no possibility of ending.

"I have lit the candle."

Greek Perfect Tense does NOT mean the candle will continue to be lit forever and ever and ever. It means 1) completed action, with 2) continuing results. When the candle burns up the completed action will no longer have continuing results. The Greek Perfect Tense does NOT mean the candle will burn forever with no hope or possibility of ever going out. The object of the verb determines if the action will continue into the future, or not.

Please, stop these armchair Greek studies, lol. :lol
 
No you never answered it. You just said I should ask a different question.

Which clearly is no answer.

Like the scripture teaches us in Hebrews about Noah, the Gospel requires that we obey the Gospel message.

Repent for the kingdom of God is at hand.
Here, let me refresh your memory:
We know that a person 'saves themselves' when they have faith that manifests in obedience to God. Paul says this in Galatians 5:6 NASB..."6 For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything (toward justification--see context), but faith working through love. ". The faith that saves is the faith that works. We are not in contention about this.

What we are in contention about is you say Abraham was justified (MADE righteous) by his works when he offered up Isaac. Paul says he was justified when he believed God before he did any work. Explain how your doctrine handles this apparent contradiction. You have not explained this. By saying James means a person is MADE righteous by their work your doctrine puts James in direct contradiction to Paul who says a person is MADE righteous by faith apart from works.

Okay, now that we got that out of the way, maybe you can find time to finally respond to this(?):

What you have yet to explain is how your doctrine can say Noah (or Abraham) was saved on the basis of his deeds done in righteousness in complete contradiction to Paul that said we are NOT saved on the basis of deeds done in righteousness (Titus 3:5 NASB)

Note that 'deeds done in righteousness' can not mean your definition of works of the law--for they are deeds done in righteousness, not deeds done in the un-righteousness of fleshly effort.

Also, if you're going to use baptism as an example of a non-law deed that somehow evades Paul's explanation that righteous deeds do not save, but baptism does, the scriptures themselves refer to baptism as a righteous deed:

13 Then Jesus arrived from Galilee at the Jordan coming to John, to be baptized by him.
14
But John tried to prevent Him, saying, "I have need to be baptized by You, and do You come to me?"
15 But Jesus answering said to him, "Permit it at this time; for in this way it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness."
(Matthew 3:13-15 NASB)
 
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Jethro said -

We know that a person 'saves themselves' when they have faith that manifests in obedience to God. Paul says this in Galatians 5:6 NASB..."6 For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything (toward justification--see context), but faith working through love. ". The faith that saves is the faith that works. We are not in contention about this.

What we are in contention about is you say Abraham was justified (MADE righteous) by his works when he offered up Isaac. Paul says he was justified when he believed God before he did any work. Explain how your doctrine handles this apparent contradiction. You have not explained this. By saying James means a person is MADE righteous by their work your doctrine puts James in direct contradiction to Paul who says a person is MADE righteous by faith apart from works.

LOL.

Like I said, you never answered my question. I don't know what that was but it was not an answer to my question.

No where is Noah mentioned. My question concerns the scripture about Noah, and the faith he demonstrated when he built the Ark, in obedience to God.

Here is my question.

By faith Noah, being divinely warned of things not yet seen, moved with godly fear, prepared an ark for the saving of his household, by which he condemned the world and became heir of the righteousness which is according to faith. Hebrews 11:7


Based on this scripture, was Noah and his family saved by what God said, or what Noah did?

A. They were saved by what Noah did?

B. They were saved by what God said?



JLB
 
What you have yet to explain is how your doctrine can say Noah (or Abraham) was saved on the basis of his deeds done in righteousness in complete contradiction to Paul that said we are NOT saved on the basis of deeds done in righteousness (Titus 3:5 NASB)


Again, we are saved by our obedience to the Gospel.

We are justified, or declared to be righteous, like Abraham and Noah when we obey His Voice, which is the obedience of faith.

7 By faith Noah, being divinely warned of things not yet seen, moved with godly fear, prepared an ark for the saving of his household, by which he condemned the world and became heir of the righteousness which is according to faith. Hebrews 11:7

and again -

8 By faith Abraham obeyed when he was called to go out to the place which he would receive as an inheritance. And he went out, not knowing where he was going. Hebrews 11:8


The point I am making is "by faith" means that they obeyed.

The law of faith contains the foundational element of obedience.

When we see faith in the New Testament, is doesn't somehow eliminate the law of God, but rather establishes it by the work of obedience.

The law of faith involves obedience to God, by Whom faith comes.


JLB
 
Again, we are saved by our obedience to the Gospel.

We are justified, or declared to be righteous, like Abraham and Noah when we obey His Voice, which is the obedience of faith.

7 By faith Noah, being divinely warned of things not yet seen, moved with godly fear, prepared an ark for the saving of his household, by which he condemned the world and became heir of the righteousness which is according to faith. Hebrews 11:7

and again -

8 By faith Abraham obeyed when he was called to go out to the place which he would receive as an inheritance. And he went out, not knowing where he was going. Hebrews 11:8


The point I am making is "by faith" means that they obeyed.

The law of faith contains the foundational element of obedience.

When we see faith in the New Testament, is doesn't somehow eliminate the law of God, but rather establishes it by the work of obedience.

The law of faith involves obedience to God, by Whom faith comes.


JLB
Are you're saying we are justified (made righteous) on the basis of what we do--our works. Yes, or no?
 
Are you're saying we are justified (made righteous) on the basis of what we do--our works. Yes, or no?

Please answer the question concerning Noah, from the scripture in Hebrews.

By faith Noah, being divinely warned of things not yet seen, moved with godly fear, prepared an ark for the saving of his household, by which he condemned the world and became heir of the righteousness which is according to faith. Hebrews 11:7


Based on this scripture, was Noah and his family saved by what God said, or what Noah did?

A. They were saved by what Noah did?

B. They were saved by what God said?



JLB
 
Please answer the question concerning Noah, from the scripture in Hebrews.

By faith Noah, being divinely warned of things not yet seen, moved with godly fear, prepared an ark for the saving of his household, by which he condemned the world and became heir of the righteousness which is according to faith. Hebrews 11:7


Based on this scripture, was Noah and his family saved by what God said, or what Noah did?

A. They were saved by what Noah did?

B. They were saved by what God said?



JLB
I did answer it. Now I want you to clarify for me whether Noah was made righteous by what he did, or not. This should not be hard for you.

Somewhere along the line you're going to have to start distinguishing between justification and salvation itself. Do you know the difference? If you're like most in the church you prolly think they are synonomous with each other. They are not. So my question is, are you saying Noah was justified (made righteous) by what he did? Here's your chance to clarify your doctrine. Don't blow it.
 
I did answer it. Now I want you to clarify for me whether Noah was made righteous by what he did, or not. This should not be hard for you.

Somewhere along the line you're going to have to start distinguishing between justification and salvation itself. Do you know the difference? If you're like most in the church you prolly think they are synonomous with each other. They are not. So my question is, are you saying Noah was justified (made righteous) by what he did? Here's your chance to clarify your doctrine. Don't blow it.

You have not answered my question, but only dodged it my saying that I should ask a different question.

Either Noah's family was saved by what God said, or they were saved by what Noah did.

By faith Noah, being divinely warned of things not yet seen, moved with godly fear, prepared an ark for the saving of his household, by which he condemned the world and became heir of the righteousness which is according to faith. Hebrews 11:7

Based on this scripture, was Noah and his family saved by what God said, or what Noah did?

A. They were saved by what Noah did?

B. They were saved by what God said?

Are people saved by what a sent one preaches, or are they saved by obeying the Gospel message?

10 For with the heart one believes unto righteousness, and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
Romans 10:9


Are they saved when the message is preached, or are they saved when they choose to believe and confess with their mouth.

The action of confessing with the mouth is the obedient expression of believing.

Noah's act of obeying God and moving with godly fear and preparing the Ark, is his obedient act of believing.

It is the obedience of faith. It is the work of obedience that James says marks a "living" faith, not a dead faith without the work of obedience.

But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith: Romans 16:26


JLB
 
...up to the present.

That hardly guarantees the action must continue forever, and ever, and ever with no possibility of ending.

"I have lit the candle."

Greek Perfect Tense does NOT mean the candle will continue to be lit forever and ever and ever. It means 1) completed action, with 2) continuing results. When the candle burns up the completed action will no longer have continuing results. The Greek Perfect Tense does NOT mean the candle will burn forever with no hope or possibility of ever going out. The object of the verb determines if the action will continue into the future, or not.

Please, stop these armchair Greek studies, lol. :lol
Correct me if I am wrong.
Depending on the intention of the speaker is how the verb tense is chosen and written.
In your example "I had lit the candle." the object being the candle which cannot burn forever, the speaker/writer would not use the perfect tense. I think the correct tense would be the pluperfect, indicating that there was a possibility and in your example more than a possibility, that the action was perfect at the time that it occurred but not sure of continuing.
I not trained in Greek so I'm just asking.
 
Could have??? LOL.

I am discussing what the scripture actually says, not speculation.

By faith Noah, being divinely warned of things not yet seen, moved with godly fear, prepared an ark for the saving of his household, by which he condemned the world and became heir of the righteousness which is according to faith. Hebrews 11:7

Based on this scripture, and specifically the phrase that says prepared an ark for the saving of his household, Noah and his family was saved by Noah's obedience to move with godly fear and build the Ark.

Therefore Noah and his family were saved by what Noah did, and not what God said.

Noah was divinely warned of things to come and obeyed to the saving of his household.

Faith without the work of obedience is dead.

moved with godly fear, prepared an ark for the saving of his household.

Same principle of the law of faith applies to the Gospel.

Repent for the kingdom of God is at hand, or you will likewise perish.

Obey the Gospel and repent or you will perish with Satan your lord.


JLB

If Noah and his family were saved by what Noah did, instead of what God did, then who needs God? This is a works theology that conflicts with the Gospel. Preparing an ark is no different than preparing a sacrificial lamb on preparation day. Neither work can save, but only demonstrates faith in God who saves. The Gospel Truth is that as Christians we are already saved, so our works can be directed at bringing others to salvation rather than being focused on ourselves.
 
"I have lit the candle."
... When the candle burns up the completed action will no longer have continuing results.
Incorrect. In your example/analogy, the completed verb/action in the perfect tense is the action of YOU lighting the candle, not that of the burning of the candle. The candle could burn out in 5 minutes, 5 years or never if someone else kept adding wick and oxygen. It doesnt change the fact that you have lit it. In fact in your statement "I have lit the candle" you could immediately fall asleep and it not change the fact that you had lit the candle.

In the verse I quoted the verb is have conquered. The completed action/verb is to have conquered evil. In the same form as Jesus has conquered the world.

On your view, they live the rest of their lives with the possibility of not having actually completed the action of conquering evil. Evil could later conquer them. Which would contradict the Text, if it happens.

On my view, the completed action is that of having conquered evil. Which is what the Text says.


Please, stop these armchair Greek studies, lol. :lol
. LOL at you laughing out loud at me.

But no, thanks to your request. The authors of the NT wrote it in NT Greek. Variuos NT Greek scholars have made their instructions in NT Greek available to us for OUR education. Therefore, I'll be continuing to study NT Greek, from my armchair, until I have conquered it.
 
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