Jethro Bodine
Member
It's correct--if you don't mean it the way the church improperly uses the word. The church in general considers the law to be destroyed, and so abolished in that sense. But what we see in scripture is that actually what it was was laid aside as unneeded now (Hebrews 10:9 NASB), not utterly destroyed. And I'm going out on a limb here and guessing you're in the abolished as in 'the law was destroyed' category. Am I right?Actually Jethro, "abolished" is the correct term and it is so used in Scripture (2 Cor 3:13 KJV) referring specifically to the Old Covenant and those aspects which were abolished.
No, 'destroy' is not one of the meanings for this word, Strong's #2673. The word for 'destroy', the word Jesus used in Matthew 18:17 NASB, as I shared above, is Strong's #2647 katalyō13 And not as Moses, which put a vail over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished:
14 But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ.
The word translated as abolished is the Greek katargeo (Strong's 2673), which means primarily to be rendered entirely idle or useless, hence abolished (and many other similar meanings). Strong's even has "destroy" as one of the meanings.
http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G2647&t=KJV
Neither Strong's nor Vine's defines #2673 as 'destroyed'. Perhaps what you're referring to is the fact that the KJB translates it 'destroyed' in a place or two, which according to them is not correct.
The point is, Jesus said he did not come to 'destroy' the law. But abolish it in the sense of making the temple aspects of it obsolete ('useless', as you note above), that he did do. But virtually everyone I have talked to in the church tells me they consider the law of Moses destroyed, not simply useless and obsolete in regard to the former, old way we kept God's eternal requirements, and so they use the word abolish to describe that destroying.
No, 'abolish' actually does not mean the same thing as 'destroyed'. But that is how the church uses the word 'abolished', as in 'destroyed'. Not true at all. Jesus said he did not come to do that (Matthew 5:17 NASB). Rather he came to fulfill it, and now that it is fulfilled it can be laid aside as I explained in an earlier post. The remainder of which is then fulfilled by us, not destroyed by us, when we love our neighbor as ourself (Romans 13:8-10 NASB).Vine says "reduced to inactivity", which means the same thing. The Levitical priesthood was abolished because the purpose of that system of sacrifices was indeed fulfilled in and through the Lamb of God.
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