- Apr 2, 2003
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Not likely. Luke himself was a Gentile, writing his gospel to at least one other Gentile, so why would he write in Hebrew? All of Paul's writings were to Gentiles, so again, why would he write in Hebrew?There are good witnesses that the original books of New Testament were written in Hebrew and Aramaic:
file:///C:/Users/Admin/Documents/Class%20Religios%20Articles/hebrew-aramaic-origin-of-the-new-testament.pdf
https://www.logos.com/grow/min-was-the-new-testament-written-in-hebrew-aramaic-or-greek/
Which isn't the point. The point, again, is that the original OT, written in Hebrew, uses YHWH and the original NT, written in Greek, uses kurios when quoting passages from the OT that use YHWH. They also didn't use Yeshua of Jesus. Both of these mean that the writers of the NT don't fit your criteria of 2 Thess. 2:10.In the OT of most English Bibles, instead YHWH we read "LORD". We know that it is not correct. There is no difference with the NT.
Which is to imply that if one doesn't use Yahweh and Yeshua then they aren't saved. However, that is a misuse of 2 Thess. 2:10.I did not say that. What I said (actually, the Bible not I) is when people know the truth and reject it, they won't be saved (2 Thess 2:10).