You accuse me of what you do. I can't find a version that reads "to save thoe who are eagly waiting":
so Christ was offered once to bear the sins of many. To those who eagerly wait for Him He will appear a second time, apart from sin, for salvation. (Heb. 9:28 NKJ)
By altering the text you prove your interpretation is eisegesis.
So, even though I quoted it
HERE and gave ESV as the translation, and you then quoted that post, you still "can't find a version the reads" as I have given? Here it is again:
Heb 9:28 so Christ, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time, not to deal with sin but
to save those who are eagerly waiting for him. (ESV)
That isn't much different from the NIV:
Heb 9:28 so Christ was sacrificed once to take away the sins of many people; and he will appear a second time, not to bear sin, but to bring salvation to those who are waiting for him. (NIV)
Or the NASB:
Heb 9:28 so Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him. (NASB)
Or the NKJV.
They all say the same thing.
Of course, my point was not the wording, but that you are taking "salvation" to mean "justification," without any warrant for doing so.
Christ dealt with sin by His sacrifice, I never said He returns to deal with it again. You misunderstand my argument.
I don't think I have misunderstood. I know what you have and haven't said. My point clearly is that "Your interpretation is precluded, as your interpretation means he
is returning to deal with sin." Or, 'To say that those waiting for Christ are unbelievers awaiting salvation, then that means Christ
would be returning "to deal with sin," which contradicts the verse.'
That is your position, is it not, that Christ will return to justify unbelievers? If so, that
is returning to deal with sin.
The text cannot refer to be people who are alive at his coming because they have "died once" and then undergo "Judgment".
When you read this, you assume its talking about people in general, alive and dead.
This is why I insist on the word "Insasmuch", it is "causal". In other words, Jesus is sacrificing Himself BECAUSE men die once and then are judged. Christ does this to SAVE some of those being judged, "to bear the sins of many". To those who were judged covered by Christ's sacrifice, who now eagerly wait in Hades for His second coming, He will come to save them from Hades:
26 Otherwise, He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now once at the consummation of the ages He has been manifested to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself.
27 And inasmuch as it is appointed for men to die once and after this comes judgment,
28 so Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him. (Heb. 9:26-28 NAS)
Yes, it can and does refer to both the living and non-living. Again, you're making a connection between verses 27 and 28 that simply isn't there.
There is nothing in the text that even suggests that unbelievers who are judged are those whom Christ is coming to save. That is you reading into the text. There is parallelism going on that you're not taking into account.
I gave several other passages that show that Christians do and are supposed to wait eagerly for the return of Christ, to complete our salvation.