Uhm ,rabbis do see the Elohim as plural.im.also Jewish as my dad was raised.in the Temple.
It's important to know that in the Hebrew language, plural nouns do not always mean plural in number but a plural in power or majesty. The Hebrew word "Elohim" is a majestic plural and indicates God's sovereignty and power. The ending
im usually indicates a plurality. Keep in mind that el or eloha means "a mighty one" or "force." As the pagans of the time believed in one god with power over this, one god with power over that, the Torah makes it clear that the entire creation was performed by Elohim, (i.e. by "All Forces" or "Almighty"). So when you see the word "Elohim" used for God it's basically calling Him the Almighty. Another example in the Hebrew Bible would be that to refer to a leader or person of honor, speakers in the Tanakh frequently use the plural of the noun adon("lord"), which is "adonim." If you were to translate it literally it would be "lords" but when applied to one individual it's suppose to imply "a great lord" or "lord of lords."
Several biblical characters are called "adonim:"
Abraham — Gen 24:9, 10, 51
Potiphar — Gen 39:2, 3, 7, 8, etc.
Joseph — Gen 42:30, 33; 44:8
Pharaoh — Gen 40:1
Saul — 1 Sam 26:15, 16; 29:4, 10, etc.
Nabal — 1 Sam 25:14, 17
David — 2 Sam 11:9; 1 Kgs 1:11, 33, 43, 47, etc.
Jonathan — 2 Sam 16:3; 20:38
Ahab — 1 Kgs 18:8, 11, 14; 2 Kgs 9:7
Elijah — 2 Kgs 2:3, 5, 16; 5:25
Ben-Hadad — (king of Syria) 2 Kgs 6:22, 23, 32; Isa 37:4
Hezekiah — 2 Kgs 18:27; 19:6; Isa 36:12
Messianic King — Ps 45:11, "he is your adonim, bow down to him"
In the beginning was the Word,and Word with God, the Word was God. .And the Word became Flesh and dwelt amongst us
I believe I already explained this in my original post.
If Jesus was only man ,he lied as he said no man hath seen the Father,yet he claimed to have seen the Father, if He was only an Angel then the bible is false as no angel can be worshipped.
The key to understanding John 6:46 is knowing that the phrase “seen the Father” does not refer to seeing with the eye, but to “knowing the Father.” Jesus knew God, not because he lived with God before his birth, but because God revealed Himself more clearly to Jesus than to anyone else. Jesus made this clear in other teachings, saying, “For the Father loves the Son and shows him all he does…” (John 5:20a).
In both Hebrew and Greek, words translated “see” also mean “to know, to realize.” The Hebrew word ra’ah is used of both seeing with the eyes and knowing something, or perceiving it (Gen. 16:4; Exod. 32:1; Num. 20:29). Similarly, the Greek word horao, translated “see” in John 1:18, 6:46; and 3 John 1:11, can mean “to see with the eyes” or “to see with the mind, to perceive, know.” Even in English, one of the definitions for “see” is “to know or understand.” For example, when two people are discussing something, one might say to the other, “I see what you mean.”
The usage of “see” as it pertains to knowing is found in many places in the New Testament. For example, Jesus said to Philip, “…Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father…” (John 14:9). Here again the word “see” is used to indicate knowing. Anyone who knew Christ (not just those who “saw” him) would know the Father. In fact, Christ had made that clear two verses earlier when he said to Philip, “If you really knew me, you would know my Father as well. From now on, you do know him and have seen him” (John 14:7). In this verse Jesus says that those who know him have “seen” the Father.