I wasn’t going to respond to DN’s posts for a few reasons, some of them stated, but after rethinking the issue I see a need to clarify the point I was trying to make. The so-called “Calvinists†understood what I was getting at, others did not, so here we go…once again.
When the author gives the answer, “So what?†to the question of whether or not God is the author of sin, I don’t believe he’s making a case that God is in fact the author of sin. As a Christian reforming my mind to the Bible, I have to admit that sin was decreed to exist by God, yet, it’s origin is a mystery [“as we only see through a glass darklyâ€Â]. The unfaithful and the unbeliever have a hard time grasping this fact, God doesn’t explain the origin of sin and with holds knowledge from man which is why this kind of discussion can lead to frustration, bearing no fruit. Sin is not from God but we can’t exclude it from God’s divine counsel and plan. To understand sin we need to understand the fall of man. Man fell for eating of the fruit of the garden. Herman Bavinck wrote: “To know good and evil is to become the determiner of good and evil; it is to decide for oneself what is right and wrong and not submit to any external law. In short, to seek the knowledge of good and evil is to desire emancipation from God; it is to want to be ‘like God.’†The London Baptist Confession of 1689 reads, “The almighty power, unsearchable wisdom, and infinite goodness of God, so far manifest themselves in his providence, that his determinate counsel extendeth itself even to the first fall, and all other sinful actions both of angels and men; and that not by a bare permission, which also he most wisely and powerfully boundeth, and otherwise ordereth and governeth, in a manifold dispensation to his most holy ends; yet so, as
the sinfulness of their acts proceedeth only from the creatures, and not from God, who, being most holy and righteous, neither is nor can be the author or approver of sin.( Romans 11:32-34; 2 Samuel 24:1, 1 Chronicles 21:1; 2 Kings 19:28; Psalms 76;10; Genesis 1:20; Isaiah 10:6, 7, 12; Psalms 1:21; 1 John 2:16 )â€Â
I don’t believe God forced men to sin, He simply withheld His restraining hand, which allowed man to fall. God didn’t have to restrain sin and He still doesn’t, but He does.
It’s difficult to explain in such a way an unbeliever will understand…what we can know…
We can know the fall of man thru Adam wasn’t an accident and was ordained by God [“foreknown indeed (as a sacrifice for sin) before the foundation of the world,†1 Peter 1:20.] The apostle Paul’s revelations agree when he writes about “the eternal purpose†in Jesus Christ our Lord, Ephesians 3:l1 and Hebrews 13:20. We have a totally valid conclusion since we find the plan of redemption is found in eternity, that the fall of man finds it’s origins in eternity. There would be no need to have a plan for redemption if redemption of a peoples wasn’t necessary.
We can know that redemption is based upon free Grace from God in eternity. We can know that God’s glory is found in His creation which was brought out of nothing and also in the redemption of mankind.
We can know the reason for allowing the fall, “For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon all.†Romans 11:32 God gave consent for Adam and Eve to be tempted and fall, and then forgive that sin for His own glory. Allowing the fall and authoring the fall are different and from our finite position as believers it seems the fall was allowed in order to show what free will would do. As John Nelson Darby wrote, “freewill is sin.†Any will outside that of God’s is sinful.
We can know that sinful acts are permitted and good works are made certain by God’s decrees, “God hath decreed in himself, from all eternity, by the most wise and holy counsel of his own will, freely and unchangeably, all things, whatsoever comes to pass; yet so as thereby is God neither the author of sin nor hath fellowship with any therein; nor is violence offered to the will of the creature, nor yet is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established; in which appears his wisdom in disposing all things, and power and faithfulness in accomplishing his decree.
( Isaiah 46:10; Ephesians 1:11; Hebrews 6:17; Romans 9:15, 18; James 1:13; 1 John 1:5; Acts 4:27, 28; John 19:11; Numbers 23:19; Ephesians 1:3-5 )†LBCF 1689 Examples of deliberately sinful acts resulting in good are Joseph being solid into slavery Gen. 45 – 50, Pharoh’s heart being harden Ex. 4:21; 9:12, Shimei cursing David 2 Sam. 16, Saul killing himself 1 Cor. 10, and the murder of Christ resulting in good.
Ok, now I can look at what you wrote…
The author appears to be taking the second horn of the Euthyphro dilemma. Yes, if you are willing to do that, God can do anything at all and it is "good" by definition. It would be a contradiction for God to have done something evil.
The author is placing the burden on those who object to find a reason why God can’t be the author of sin, that’s it, short and sweet. What I believe Cheung to be saying is that your claim that predestination makes God the author of sin is a tradition and not Biblical at all. God knew what mankind would be like and created us anyway. A quote from the work,
“One example is the relationship between divine sovereignty (X) and human responsibility (Y). By themselves, there is no contradiction between the two, whether actual or apparent. However, the two will appear to contradict once you impose the premise "responsibility presupposes freedom" (Q). All of a sudden, it appears that X contradicts Y. In fact, if Q is true, then this would be a real contradiction, and not only an apparent one. But once we realize that Q is false, even the appearance of a contradiction disappears. The key, then, is to correctly understand what Scripture says, and to avoid adding to it false ideas that do not come from Scripture at all.â€Â
The problem is that the "goodness" of God becomes completely meaningless. (The author does mention God's "nature", which may actually result in the first horn, (and damage what he is saying), but it is clear enough I think that the author is taking the second horn of the dilemma.)
I agree. When you delve into the decrees of God you are left without an answer and humbled, the infinite vs. the finite. Man should be humbled by knowing he is not permitted to know certain truths of God and this knowledge is understood by faith. This makes it difficult for the unbeliever to understand because they don’t trust God.
If you take the second horn of the Euthyphro dilemma, then there is nothing to stop God from being a liar. Indeed, it would be perfectly good for God to be a liar!
Yes, I know. This is what happens in Islam, Allah is a liar; he can do anything he wants including telling lies. The Christian is not faced with this problem. Our God cannot do anything contrary to His nature.
So God may have lied to the Christians. God may not be sending you to heaven, he may actually intend to burn you all in hell!
This is what happens when you miss the point of the teaching, and jump to conclusions based upon a first year study of philosophy. After re-reading much of Cheung’s book [as well as his Systematic Theology] in the context of the study I’ve done/continue to do, Cheung wouldn’t be a good place to start as an unbeliever. The context of Cheung’s work in the Reformed Church can only be understood in light of the theological progress made before and found in the works of Calvin, Kyper, Bavinck, Berkhof, etc. and that's probably why Bill or the other Calvinists on this forum haven't really responded. I've restated for clarity what I believe at the top setting Cheung's work aside for now.
JM, if God burns you in hell after having lied to you, would God be perfectly good?
God cannot lie and man is pnished for his actual sin, not his sinful nature. The problem is, the sinful nature always results in actual sin. “For all have sinned…â€Â
Would the torture of millions of Christians for ALL ETERNITY be for the "glory" of God?
This question doesn’t make sense, Christian are believers and will not surfer the wrath of God because Christ died in the place as a substitution.
Yes.