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1 Jn 2:1-2 who does it apply to ?

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beloved57

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1 Jn 2:1-2

My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:

2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

Now does this passage specifically state that Christ died for every single individual without exception in the whole entire world ? No it doesnt.

John is writing to believers only, and Christ is the propitiation to all the entire world of believers, whether jew or gentile.

All believers in the Christ from the dawn of world history to the end time of the world, have Christ as the propitiation for their sins.

This means that Christ by His death for them unto the law and justice of God, for all their sins, hath appeased the wrath of God for them, hence there can be no wrath from God upon them.

Now with that fact in mind, it is virtually impossible for these unbelievers under Gods wrath Jn 3:36

36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.

Its impossible for anyone of these to be part of the whole world of 1 Jn 2:2

2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

So for anyone to appeal to 1 Jn 2:1-2 as a proof text to prove that Christ died for all mankind [individually] without exception, they are falsifying scripture, being a false witness, because for one 1 Jn 2:2 doesnt say that, and it cant even begin to mean that !

So it can only apply to believers, of any nationality and of any time in the history of the world !
 
2 "And he is the propitiation for our sins:"
"Our" refers to current and past believers up until John's day that have received Yeshua as their Savior.

"and not for ours only,"

This means there are others besides current and past believers up until John's day who he is the propitiation for.

"but also for the sins of the whole world."
This is looking ahead from John's day to all future believers who receive Yeshua as their Savior. Yeshua died to save sinners wherever they live if they will receive him as Savior. He does not need to die again for future sinners. His death on the tree was efficacious for them as well, even though it is past.
 
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1 Jn 2:1-2

My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:

2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

Now does this passage specifically state that Christ died for every single individual without exception in the whole entire world ? No it doesnt.

John is writing to believers only, and Christ is the propitiation to all the entire world of believers, whether jew or gentile.

All believers in the Christ from the dawn of world history to the end time of the world, have Christ as the propitiation for their sins.

This means that Christ by His death for them unto the law and justice of God, for all their sins, hath appeased the wrath of God for them, hence there can be no wrath from God upon them.

Now with that fact in mind, it is virtually impossible for these unbelievers under Gods wrath Jn 3:36

36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.

Its impossible for anyone of these to be part of the whole world of 1 Jn 2:2

2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

So for anyone to appeal to 1 Jn 2:1-2 as a proof text to prove that Christ died for all mankind [individually] without exception, they are falsifying scripture, being a false witness, because for one 1 Jn 2:2 doesnt say that, and it cant even begin to mean that !

So it can only apply to believers, of any nationality and of any time in the history of the world !
Our witness to unbelievers is......."Christ died for you and your sins. He asks that you believe in Him and what He did on the cross for you for your salvation."

1 John 2:2 does talk about every individual that has ever lived.Not one person will be judged according to their sins. Jesus Christ fully paid the sin debt.............for everyone.

The wrath of God abides on those who do not believe.

unbelievers are judged according to their DEEDS not their sins. Because The Lord Jesus Christ paid for the sin of the WHOLE world.

Beloved57, this is why religion and human good is so dangerous. It is mankinds self righteousness that is judged. Our "good enough" or "being good" from our flesh or our own self effort is what is judged. Not our sin. Because Christ paid for every single sin that man has ever committed.
Rev 20:13~~Berean Literal Bible
And the sea gave up the dead who were in it; and death and Hades gave up the dead who were in them; and each of them were judged according to their works.

New American Standard Bible
And the sea gave up the dead which were in it, and death and Hades gave up the dead which were in them; and they were judged, every one of them according to their deeds.

2 Cor 11:15~~New American Standard Bible
Therefore it is not surprising if his servants also disguise themselves as servants of righteousness, whose end will be according to their deeds.
 
unbelievers are judged according to their DEEDS not their sins. Because The Lord Jesus Christ paid for the sin of the WHOLE world.


Rev 20:13~~Berean Literal Bible
And the sea gave up the dead who were in it; and death and Hades gave up the dead who were in them; and each of them were judged according to their works.

New American Standard Bible
And the sea gave up the dead which were in it, and death and Hades gave up the dead which were in them; and they were judged, every one of them according to their deeds.

2 Cor 11:15~~New American Standard Bible
Therefore it is not surprising if his servants also disguise themselves as servants of righteousness, whose end will be according to their deeds.
They are judged according to their deeds/works because they cannot be judged by being in Messiah. Since they don't have Messiah, they must be judged by their works.

Rom 6:6 Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him, that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we should not serve sin.
Rom 6:7 For he that is dead is freed from sin.
Only those who have died in Messiah (a spiritual death, not a physical death) are freed from sin. The rest of the unbelieving world is NOT freed from sin, but will be judged in their sin.

Acts 3:19 Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord;
One's sins are not blotted out until we repent of them and receive Yeshua as Savior.
 
gr8

The wrath of God abides on those who do not believe.

Those unbelievers and enemies Christ died for are by His death reconciled to God Rom 5:10. Gods wrath for them has been appeased byu Christ's death for them.

Content edited by moderator for personal remarks
 
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2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

Now does this passage specifically state that Christ died for every single individual without exception in the whole entire world ? No it doesnt.
Now does this passage specifically state that Christ did not die for every single individual without exception in the whole entire world ? No it doesnt.
 
Now does this passage specifically state that Christ did not die for every single individual without exception in the whole entire world ? No it doesnt.
It doesn't say He did die for everyone without exception, yet many appeal to it for that reason.
 
Jocor

One's sins are not blotted out until werepent of them and receive Yeshua as Savior

No scripture says that. It is not a true statement. Those Christ died for are reconciled to God while they are enemies. Rom 5:10. They don't have any sins charged to them 2 Cor 5:19. Your statement is not scriptural.
 
It doesn't say He did die for everyone without exception, yet many appeal to it for that reason.
I dont understand your reply to be an answer to the question. again the question... Now does this passage specifically state that Christ did not die for every single individual without exception in the whole entire world ?
 
I dont understand your reply to be an answer to the question. again the question... Now does this passage specifically state that Christ did not die for every single individual without exception in the whole entire world ?
Does the passage specifically say that Christ died for every individual without exception ?
 
You explained only your idea... How about an answer to the question...

Now does this passage specifically state that Christ did not die for every single individual without exception in the whole entire world ?
 
You explained only your idea... How about an answer to the question...

Now does this passage specifically state that Christ did not die for every single individual without exception in the whole entire world ?
No it does not specifically say that. Does it specifically say that Christ died for all without exception?
 
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I dont find the word exception that at all .. so no it doesn't
 
Jocor



No scripture says that. It is not a true statement. Those Christ died for are reconciled to God while they are enemies. Rom 5:10. They don't have any sins charged to them 2 Cor 5:19. Your statement is not scriptural.
I thought Acts 3:19 says that. If not, what is it saying?
 
How about the points of the scripture instead of your points.. what i read is
2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
 
I thought Acts 3:19 says that. If not, what is it saying?
You thought it was saying that ?? Well it does not specifically say that. If you want to know what its saying its your responsibility to study it, not mine. You brought up the verse. Have you ever studied it ?
 
Jocor



No scripture says that. It is not a true statement. Those Christ died for are reconciled to God while they are enemies. Rom 5:10. They don't have any sins charged to them 2 Cor 5:19. Your statement is not scriptural.
The reconciliation was made when Messiah died, but it does not take effect on an individual level until the individual repents and receives Messiah as Savior (2Co 5:20).
 
1 Jn 2:1-2

My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:

2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
 
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