B
beloved57
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1 Jn 2:1-2
My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:
2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
Now does this passage specifically state that Christ died for every single individual without exception in the whole entire world ? No it doesnt.
John is writing to believers only, and Christ is the propitiation to all the entire world of believers, whether jew or gentile.
All believers in the Christ from the dawn of world history to the end time of the world, have Christ as the propitiation for their sins.
This means that Christ by His death for them unto the law and justice of God, for all their sins, hath appeased the wrath of God for them, hence there can be no wrath from God upon them.
Now with that fact in mind, it is virtually impossible for these unbelievers under Gods wrath Jn 3:36
36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.
Its impossible for anyone of these to be part of the whole world of 1 Jn 2:2
2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
So for anyone to appeal to 1 Jn 2:1-2 as a proof text to prove that Christ died for all mankind [individually] without exception, they are falsifying scripture, being a false witness, because for one 1 Jn 2:2 doesnt say that, and it cant even begin to mean that !
So it can only apply to believers, of any nationality and of any time in the history of the world !
My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:
2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
Now does this passage specifically state that Christ died for every single individual without exception in the whole entire world ? No it doesnt.
John is writing to believers only, and Christ is the propitiation to all the entire world of believers, whether jew or gentile.
All believers in the Christ from the dawn of world history to the end time of the world, have Christ as the propitiation for their sins.
This means that Christ by His death for them unto the law and justice of God, for all their sins, hath appeased the wrath of God for them, hence there can be no wrath from God upon them.
Now with that fact in mind, it is virtually impossible for these unbelievers under Gods wrath Jn 3:36
36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.
Its impossible for anyone of these to be part of the whole world of 1 Jn 2:2
2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
So for anyone to appeal to 1 Jn 2:1-2 as a proof text to prove that Christ died for all mankind [individually] without exception, they are falsifying scripture, being a false witness, because for one 1 Jn 2:2 doesnt say that, and it cant even begin to mean that !
So it can only apply to believers, of any nationality and of any time in the history of the world !