Seemed the same way to me until I hit
post#119.
I once heard someone say that one of the greatest evils postmodernism gave us is the subjectivity in language. Different people use the same words to mean different things. There is then bound to be confusion.
We could try avoiding the subjectivity in words by arriving at working definitions of terms before discussing in-depth.
What I have observed so far is that on one side,
most here define freewill[1] as - having the unrestricted
ability to make a choice.
WhoSays defines freewill[2] as - having the unrestricted
right to make a choice.
Funny thing is,
I define freewill[3] as - having unrestricted
options to make a choice.
But forget about me for now - I only wanted to point out how people use the same term to mean quite different things.
I kind of understand where WhoSays is coming from on this specific issue - on this same forum, sometime ago, an unbeliever asked me this question -
"If God has given me freewill[2](
the unrestricted right to make a choice), then why does He also find fault with me when I exercise that right?"
Do you see the problem - he thought that God had given him the
right or the choice itself to choose between good and evil and then finds a contradiction when God says he will be punished if he chose evil. How then could it be a "right to choose" if God influenced towards one choice alone.
What he didn't understand was that God never gave man the freedom or right(freewill[2]) to choose between good and evil - there God commanded man to choose only good.
Just take this above statement by itself -
"God never gave man the freedom to choose between good and evil"
freewill[1] thinkers are going to take offense here in how God could not have given man the freedom(ability) to choose between good and evil.
But what was meant here is not that at all. The focus is on 'choice between good and evil'.
I think most of you would have understood the issue here but I'll also repeat it with a crude illustration -
Imagine a father walks up to his child, puts out both his hands with a toffee in either hand and asks the child to choose one. The child chooses with his ability to choose(freewill[1]), the right hand and receives that toffee. Will the father punish the child here for choosing the right hand and not the left? Absolutely not.
But what happens is that some others extend the same analogy to mean freewill[2] - For instance, the unbeliever I mentioned above imagines it the same way -
That the father walks up to his child, puts out both his hands with a toffee in the left hand and a cigarette in the right hand, and asks the child to choose one. The child chooses with his right to choose(freewill[2]), the right hand and takes the cigarette. But here, why should the father find fault with the child - the unbeliever asks?
But we know this sounds absurd - that the two analogies are not at all the same. The father would never give such a choice himself - he would command the child not to touch any cigarette - in that, the child does not have freewill[2] but the child might still find it elsewhere and may exercise his freewill[1] to take it.
So here, when WhoSays objects against freewill[2], others defend freewill[1] and so each one is offended at how the other is not conforming to a single belief. I wish the problem can now stand resolved without further strife.