CalledToServe explained what law passed away very well.
Let us start with the words of Jesus. To get as close to His words as possible, let's look at Young's Literal Translation: 5:18 for, verily I say to you, till that the heaven and the earth may pass away, one iota or one tittle may not pass away from the law, till that all may come to pass. 5:19 Whoever therefore may loose one of these commands -- the least -- and may teach men so, least he shall be called in the reign of the heavens, but whoever may do and may teach them, he shall be called great in the reign of the heavens. Matthew 5:18 YLT Now, I think we will agree that the meaning of those words is perfectly clear. Not the smallest part of the law will be removed from the law until heaven and earth pass away. Clear?
Almost. You left out the other condition that must be met before the least part of the law could be removed--'
till that all may come to pass', vs.18.
We know that whatever Christ was talking about that must happen before something could be removed, or pass from the law has in fact happened. How do we know that? Because much, much more than just a jot or tittle has been laid aside in the law, the law of animal sacrifice for sin. You'll find little disagreement among even the most diverse sects of Christianity that Christ's sacrifice effectively makes the various laws of sacrifice for sin no longer needed for atonement. As the writer of Hebrews says, we don't need them anymore. They have in effect been literally replaced by the blood and body of Christ.
So the law that you are so sure Jesus is saying will never change, even in one jot or tittle, has indeed changed, Christ's sacrifice on the cross being the fulfillment that allows the laying aside of much more than just a jot and a tittle of the law. Heaven and earth didn't pass away. The other condition Jesus laid down got met. No breaking of Christ's words here.
The meaning is that it will never pass away because heaven is for eternity. Those are the words of Jesus but you can ignore them if you wish.
Ignore them? No. Understand
all that is written there? Yes.
Now, let's look at where most Christians claim that those words of Jesus are over-ridden and the law has in fact been changed, despite Jesus's own words;
I have
never heard the argument among believing Christians that Jesus' words got overridden by another Biblical writer. Never.
Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Hebrews 8:6-12. Let us start with Hebrews because that has already been mentioned in this thread. Hebrews is basically a letter. It is a letter written by an anonymous person and refers to what an apostle has told the writer. Clear?
Very clear...probably Barnabas, the close associate of Paul.
Not what Jesus said, what some un-named apostle said and this from an unknown writer! Does that over-rule Jesus? Of course it doesn't.
Correct. It does not overrule or contradict Jesus' words. In fact, Hebrews is where I go to explain the fulfillment that Jesus speaks of in Matthew 5 that allows the 'passing away' of the law of sacrifice. The author there explains that because we have been made forever and completely perfect before God through the blood of Christ
there is no longer any need to go through the ceremonial law of Moses to do that which God has done for us through Jesus Christ. Christ's work on the cross effectively makes the sacrificial/ ceremonial law obsolete (unneeded). IOW, those laws 'pass from the law'.
Paul explains in his letter to Timothy that the law
"is not made for a righteous person, but for those who are lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane" (1 Tim. 1:9 NASB). And indeed it was. For it was the law through which men guilty of sin had to approach God repeatedly for cleansing from the sin guilt that the law itself could not remove. But it is not needed for righteous men who have been forever forgiven and made clean through Christ and who are legally, before God in heaven, no longer the murderers, and thieves, and wicked people they once were who needed the sacrificial system of the law of Moses for (repeated) atonement:
"...neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor [f]effeminate, nor homosexuals, 10 nor thieves, nor the covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers, will inherit the kingdom of God. 11 Such were some of you; but you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God." (1 Corinthains 6: NASB)
Now Jeremiah. At least we know something about him and he is to be respected. What he writes should be considered carefully. He writes in th efirst person, using the terms 'I' and 'me' to clarify that he was there, he heard things with his own ears. That's great, it should give us some confidence when we weigh up his words. Unfortunately, we then run into a major, major problem. Just before he explains the passing of the old Covenent, he stops writing in the first person and suddenly starts writing in the third person. He is most unlikely to suddenly change his writing style for that passage, the words are actually written by someone else and are suspiciously close to Hebrews. Given that they are talking largely about the priesthood - I will let you guess who wrote those words and why.
Hopefully, now that this is being explained you can see there's no reason to entertain that conspiracy theory. The Bible is consistent through and through.
So, we have two unknown people contradicting Jesus and saying that the law has changed even though Jesus said that it will never change. Who are you going to believe? Jesus or some unknown writer? And why? Just because it is convenient?
Once a person knows the truth as I have just explained it there is no need for either conspiracy theories or convenient thoughts to explain it.
Now, what about those words ascribed to Jesus in Hebrews. Have you thought much about what it actually says?
8:11 "No longer will a man teach his neighbor, or a man his brother, saying, 'Know the Lord,' because they will all know me, from the least of them to the greatest 8:12 For I will forgive their wickedness and will remember their sins no more."
Do you get it? "No longer will a man teach his neighbor, or a man his brother, saying, 'Know the Lord,' because they will all know me, from the least of them to the greatest". When do you think that could mean Jethro?
What it means is, in the New Covenant, every believer is given the Spirit of discernment. The common man no longer has to rely on the go-between of the various offices of teachers and elders to discern truth from error. John explains this in one of his letters:
"26 These things I have written to you concerning those who are trying to deceive you. 27 As for you, the anointing which you received from Him abides in you, and you have no need for anyone to teach you; but as His anointing teaches you about all things..." (1 John 2:26-27 NASB)
You see, the problem in the first covenant was only selected people were appointed and placed in positions of spiritual leadership to lead God's people into obedience. When that system was corrupt, so became the people.
The only answer I can come up with is after the second coming. It is certainly not NOW is it? The majority of mankind still do not know Jesus.
All of
God's people will know him for themselves and not have to depend on the go-between of the priesthood and elders of the nation who became so utterly corrupt and unable to lead God's people into righteousness. Even though we still operate under a hierarchy of offices and gifts, each member of the body of Christ can discern truth for himself and resist the corruption of misguided and godless people lording it over them.
IF those truly were Jesus's words, he has been proven terribly wrong - so do you really think they are Jesus's words? No, they have been written by anonymous priests for their own ends. Or was Jesus really wrong Jethro?
Hopefully now you can see how all these things truly are reconcilable and that they really do represent the truth that the church has been based on for all these centuries.
Final question to keep this clearly on-topic. If someone, a potential apostate, was wavering in his belief that there was really a new covenant, how would you support him? How would you convince him that we can ignore Jesus's words and accept the words of some unknown people instead?
I'm confident that I've cleared up the apparent problem of contradiction.
IMO, what the apostate has to hear is the truth about sin and the forgiveness of sin and how everything from Genesis, to the law, to Jesus on the cross, to the ministry of the Apostles are all parts of God's one plan to forgive and cleanse a people and take them as his very own. But it all starts with an honest acknowledgement of what God says is sin and our responsibility in it. And from there, an honest acceptance and reliance on what He did through Jesus Christ to wipe away that sin guilt and receive you as his own, and make you able to pass through the coming judgment without fear.