Again......You are incorrect.Serious or deadly sun must separate us from Christ and grace and charity or Christ would be guilty of sin!
"ALL"..."ANY" sin seperates man from God!
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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Again......You are incorrect.Serious or deadly sun must separate us from Christ and grace and charity or Christ would be guilty of sin!
Rev 12:17NO!
One reason it can not be Mary is tha Mary did not experience any of the things listed in Rev. 12.
Another reason why it will be impossible for the YOU as a Catholic to say Mary is that woman of Revelation chapter 12, is that verse 17 goes on to say that she has 'offspring' (seed) further to the male child born to her in heaven and snatched away to God's throne.
Now If Christ was literally her 'seed', then how come she bore others, as 'the rest of her seed'?
Matthew 13:55 and Mark 6:3 name four men called Jesus' brethren: James, Joses, Simon, and Judas called Jude. Verse 56 mentions that Jesus had sisters, but they are not named1. The brothers and sisters of the Lord are also mentioned in Matthew 12:46-50, Luke 8:19, John 2:12, 7:3, Acts 1:14, 1 Cor. 9:5, and Galatians 1:19.
The three major views have come to be known by the names of their fourth-century proponents:
Helvidius, Epiphanius and Jerome. The Helvidian view, which probably most modern exegetes, even including some Roman Catholic scholars, hold, is that the brothers were sons of Joseph and Mary, born after Jesus.
They of course would be His 1/2 brothers and sisters.
Source: J.P. Meier, A Marginal Jew: Rethinking the Historical Jesus, vol. 1 (New York: Doubleday, 1991), pp. 316–332; and ‘The Brothers and Sisters of Jesus in Ecumenical Perspective’, Catholic Biblical Quarterly 54 (1992), 1–28.
No sir that is incorrect.Not following along very well....
But the CC does follow the teaching of Ephesians 2:8....
We are saved by God's grace.....
through our faith.
And all 3 are gifts:
Grace
Faith
Salvation
Again....you are incorrect.Rev 12:17
Spiritual children of a spiritual mother
I do not want to appear to be argumentitive with anyone, however...NO WHERE in the Bible does it sate that water baptism is required for a man to be saved.The NT DOES state that baptism is necessary for entry into the New Covenant.
Jesus Himself ordered the Apostles to baptize in the Great Commission in Matthew 28:19.
Acts 2:38 states that we are to believe and be baptized.
Acts 22:16 states that we are to be baptized in order to wash away our sins.
Mark 16:16 Whoever believes AND is baptized will be saved
In Protestantism baptism is seen as a SIGN of something that is happening in the interior of man.
Catholics see every sacrament as being something real and given by God for a reason.
I tend to agree with the CC on this.
I think they have many concepts/teachings correct and we've watered them down.
My opinion.
No way Mary is a perpetual virgin by apostolic authority that chirst endowed his church with verified by scripture Matt 16:18-19 & 18:18NO!
One reason it can not be Mary is tha Mary did not experience any of the things listed in Rev. 12.
Another reason why it will be impossible for the YOU as a Catholic to say Mary is that woman of Revelation chapter 12, is that verse 17 goes on to say that she has 'offspring' (seed) further to the male child born to her in heaven and snatched away to God's throne.
Now If Christ was literally her 'seed', then how come she bore others, as 'the rest of her seed'?
Matthew 13:55 and Mark 6:3 name four men called Jesus' brethren: James, Joses, Simon, and Judas called Jude. Verse 56 mentions that Jesus had sisters, but they are not named1. The brothers and sisters of the Lord are also mentioned in Matthew 12:46-50, Luke 8:19, John 2:12, 7:3, Acts 1:14, 1 Cor. 9:5, and Galatians 1:19.
The three major views have come to be known by the names of their fourth-century proponents:
Helvidius, Epiphanius and Jerome. The Helvidian view, which probably most modern exegetes, even including some Roman Catholic scholars, hold, is that the brothers were sons of Joseph and Mary, born after Jesus.
They of course would be His 1/2 brothers and sisters.
Source: J.P. Meier, A Marginal Jew: Rethinking the Historical Jesus, vol. 1 (New York: Doubleday, 1991), pp. 316–332; and ‘The Brothers and Sisters of Jesus in Ecumenical Perspective’, Catholic Biblical Quarterly 54 (1992), 1–28.
No not children of maryNO!
One reason it can not be Mary is tha Mary did not experience any of the things listed in Rev. 12.
Another reason why it will be impossible for the YOU as a Catholic to say Mary is that woman of Revelation chapter 12, is that verse 17 goes on to say that she has 'offspring' (seed) further to the male child born to her in heaven and snatched away to God's throne.
Now If Christ was literally her 'seed', then how come she bore others, as 'the rest of her seed'?
Matthew 13:55 and Mark 6:3 name four men called Jesus' brethren: James, Joses, Simon, and Judas called Jude. Verse 56 mentions that Jesus had sisters, but they are not named1. The brothers and sisters of the Lord are also mentioned in Matthew 12:46-50, Luke 8:19, John 2:12, 7:3, Acts 1:14, 1 Cor. 9:5, and Galatians 1:19.
The three major views have come to be known by the names of their fourth-century proponents:
Helvidius, Epiphanius and Jerome. The Helvidian view, which probably most modern exegetes, even including some Roman Catholic scholars, hold, is that the brothers were sons of Joseph and Mary, born after Jesus.
They of course would be His 1/2 brothers and sisters.
Source: J.P. Meier, A Marginal Jew: Rethinking the Historical Jesus, vol. 1 (New York: Doubleday, 1991), pp. 316–332; and ‘The Brothers and Sisters of Jesus in Ecumenical Perspective’, Catholic Biblical Quarterly 54 (1992), 1–28.
Thank you or the kind words. As I have said.....I do not argue and I only speak to what the Bible actually says.1459 Many sins wrong our neighbor. One must do what is possible in order to repair the harm (e.g., return stolen goods, restore the reputation of someone slandered, pay compensation for injuries). Simple justice requires as much. But sin also injures and weakens the sinner himself, as well as his relationships with God and neighbor. Absolution takes away sin, but it does not remedy all the disorders sin has caused. Raised up from sin, the sinner must still recover his full spiritual health by doing something more to make amends for the sin: he must "make satisfaction for" or "expiate" his sins. This satisfaction is also called "penance."
1460 The penance the confessor imposes must take into account the penitent's personal situation and must seek his spiritual good. It must correspond as far as possible with the gravity and nature of the sins committed. It can consist of prayer, an offering, works of mercy, service of neighbor, voluntary self-denial, sacrifices, and above all the patient acceptance of the cross we must bear. Such penances help configure us to Christ, who alone expiated our sins once for all. They allow us to become co-heirs with the risen Christ, "provided we suffer with him."
The satisfaction that we make for our sins, however, is not so much ours as though it were not done through Jesus Christ. We who can do nothing ourselves, as if just by ourselves, can do all things with the cooperation of "him who strengthens" us. Thus man has nothing of which to boast, but all our boasting is in Christ . . . in whom we make satisfaction by bringing forth "fruits that befit repentance." These fruits have their efficacy from him, by him they are offered to the Father, and through him they are accepted by the Father.
So nice to speak to a Christian that understands Catholicism and speaks of it in a respectful tone.
I posted what the Catechism of the Catholic Church states about penance.
I'm not Catholic and won't bore you with details, but I do want to state that when I've gone to confession I was never given penance to do. The priest uses what he knows about the confessee (?) to try to help them understand the particular sin that is being discussed at the moment. Maybe it IS necessary for some personal action to take place...maybe not.
However, that action is not a CONDITION to being forgiven.
The person is forgiven as soon as absolution is performed by the words of the priest.
Also, I wouldn't say it's a work....
Maybe more like an offering....
Wonder if donadams would care to add anything....
You are correct and I agree.Revelation:
Do not add to or take away from this book....
However, we absolutely can take that to mean ALL books in the bible..although I do believe John was referring to the NT.
(there was no NT at that time....I mean all the written letters that were circulating).
But the authority of the apostles continues till Christ returnsYou almost got it right.
Truth comes from Christ and was written in the Words of God and that Word was closed when the Last Apostle, John died.
An open canon would allow books or passages of Scripture to be added to the Bible through continued or ongoing revelation. By adding books to the canon, we would essentially be saying that the current Bible is incomplete, or lacking in some way.
Proverbs 30:5–6 cautions us not to add to God’s words:......
“Every word of God is flawless; he is a shield to those who take refuge in him. Do not add to his words, or he will rebuke you and prove you a liar.”
Deuteronomy 4:2 warns us not to add or to take away from God’s commands:........
“Do not add to what I command you and do not subtract from it, but keep the commands of the LORD your God that I give you”.
With all due respect, you are completely ignoring and changing the literal, actual words of the original Greek to make your point.No way Mary is a perpetual virgin by apostolic authority that chirst endowed his church with verified by scripture Matt 16:18-19 & 18:18
No sex Lk 1:34
They may be brothers of Jesus but they may not be children of Mary!
Cousins: in Hebrew culture any close relative is called brother
No not children of mary
Any close relation in Hebrew culture can be called brothers
Gen 12:5 and Abram took Sarai his wife, and Lot his brother's son..
Gen 13:8 And Abram said unto Lot, Let there be no strife, I pray thee, between me and thee, and between my herdsmen and thy herdsmen; for we are Brothers.
The 12 sons of Jacob are brothers but all are not the children of Leah and all are not the children of Rachel! They had 4 mother’s, These may be brothers but they are simply not the children of One mother and the brothers of Jesus are not the children of Mary!
Brothers of Jesus Not the children of Mary!
Matthew 13:55
Is not this the carpenter's son? is not his mother called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas?
Mk 15:40 There were also women looking on afar off: among whom was Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James the less and of Joses, and Salome;
Matthew 27:56
Among which was Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James and Joses, and the mother of Zebedees children.
Acts 4:36
And Joses, who by the apostles was surnamed Barnabas, (which is, being interpreted, The son of consolation,) a Levite, and of the country of Cyprus,
(Cannot be Mary’s child, Mary was of the tribe of Judah and the royal house of David the king!) Lk 1:32-33
Is Mary the mother of James?
If you mean the Blessed Virgin Mary then no. Her sister-in-law, Mary of Clopas, was the wife of Alphaeus (St. Joseph's brother), and mother of Simon, Joseph, and the apostles Judas Thaddeus, and James (the Less, brother of the Lord): Jesus' cousins.
Lk 24:10 another mother of James not Mary the mother of Jesus Christ!
Mk 15:1 & Mk 15:47 mother of Joses not Mary the mother of Jesus Christ!
The "sisters" of Jesus refer to women disciples
Salome, or Mary Salome, was the wife of Zebedee, and mother of apostles John (the beloved), and James (the greater).
Regarding Mat. 13:55 and Mk. 6:3, two of the four "brethren" are James and Judas of Alphaeus (cf. Mat. 10:2-3, Lk. 6:15-16, Act. 1:13). The third, Joseph, is identified in Mk. 15:40 as the brother of James of Alphaeus. The fourth, Simon, is identified in Mat. 13:55 and Mk. 6:3 as the brother of Joseph, James, and Judas of Alphaeus. Therefore, all four are were the sons of Alphaeus, not St. Joseph and the Blessed Virgin Mary.
When Jesus was twelve they went up to Jerusalem, the holy family, Joseph, Mary, and Jesus. Where are the brothers and sisters?
Jesus on the cross gives His mother to John, why? Why not James or a brother? Perhaps the law of Moses requires a mother to be given to the next oldest son? Because he was an only Son!
Only begotten of the Father, only begotten of the Mother.
Only God can be born of a Virgin-mother!
First born does not imply a second born. An only child is still first born!
And the grace to do penance is from Christ’s merits of his bloodYou are a Catholic and you want me to explain what "Penance" is?????
OK.....Penance in the Catholic church is when you go to confession, and confess your sins to the priest and ask for absolution - which is forgiveness of your sin, the priest will put a condition on that forgiveness such as saying a certain number of prayers, or doing something to rectify the harm caused by the sin. For example, if you stole some money, the penence might be having to pay back what you stole.
Now This is unbiblical. Nowhere does Scripture teach that performing works or punishing oneself will make restitution for sin but of course I am sure you know that.
Luke 5:20 has nothing whatsoever to do with the Catholic teachings of Penance.
The Bible does teach us to repent. To repent means to have a change of mind or a change in attitude toward God. Repentance of sin is accompanied by faith in Jesus Christ; they are inseparable.
The Catholic teaching of “doing penance” as a means of atoning for sin or of appeasing God is nowhere taught in the Bible. It is not our works that make us right with God. In fact, our works are considered as nothing more than “filthy rags” in His eyes (Isaiah 64:6). It is the blood of Christ that makes us right.
There is NO Biblical requirement too do anything to be forgiven of sin.And the grace to do penance is from Christ’s merits of his blood
The church does what Christ does
Christ and his church are one! Acts 9:4 eph 5:32
1 Peter 4:8
And above all things have fervent charity among yourselves: for charity shall cover the multitude of sins.
We participate with Christ in the redemption of the world
Then was is a sun. It unto death?No sir, that is not Biblically true.
"ALL" sin separates us from God.
You said.........
"You can teach me anything from scripture".
Thank you for that. It is all that I am trying to do.
Now that being said, may I knoe say to all who read this that All sins are the same in the sense that each renders a person guilty and worthy of God’s wrath.
Consider James 2:10.........
"For whoever keeps the whole law but fails in one point has become guilty of all of it."
The root of all sin is autonomy and replacement of God with ourselves and what we want to do. However small a sin may seem, it is an assertion that the person is acting independently of God.
Remember, all Adam and Eve did was to eat a piece of fruit, however the Eating of the piece of fruit from a tree in the garden, might not seem immoral and may seem minor compared to other crimes, but it was an act of disobeying the Word of God that had grave consequences for the human race.
So then, according to the written Word of God, in terms of our legal standing before God, any one sin, even what may seem to be a very small one, makes us legally guilty before God and therefore worthy of eternal punishment. Even one sin against an infinitely holy God demands an infinite punishment.
What then is the wages of sin?????
Romans 6:23......."The wages of sin is death" and death in the Bible means = Eternal Seperation from God.
How can it when it says plainly: “not of yourselves”?No sir, that is not correct Biblically.
Ephesians 2:8 has everything to do with accepting Christ.
Please read the Scripture......"You are saved by grace and not of yourselves".
The ONLY way to understand that is to grasp that "Saved" means we accept Christ and we are then saved from the judgment. Again...READ the Scripture!
Ther is my friend not one single Scripture that says water baptism is part of the salvation experience!
Please understand that quoting Catholic council products is meaningless!!!
Already saved so you thinkThey are self explanatory.
Matt 26...Peter was still unconverted, and walking in the flesh when Jesus gave that exhortation.
Gal 5...Gives us the means of identifying who is, or is not, true to God.
1 John 5...gives us the means to allow sinners to become non-sinners.
I don't know what you are referring to.Already saved so you think
If they are "saved", they have their salvation.What about the beatitudes? Are they required for salvation or those who are saved?
Pope is papa from the Italian for father as Isa 22:21-22 saysNOPE!
There is NO Scripture that says Jesus appointed a pope. IN FACT THE WORD POPE is not found anywhere in the Bible.
You have failed to explain how there is sin that is not unto death?Again......You are incorrect.
"ALL"..."ANY" sin seperates man from God!
Mk 16:16 faith and baptismNo sir that is incorrect.
The Catholic church says/teaches/believes that we are save through grace by faith PLUS water baptism and works that we must do.
1257 of the Catechism of the Catholic Church:
"God has bound salvation to the sacrament of baptism, but he himself is not bound by his sacraments."
What this means is that the only ordinary means that the Church knows of by which a person is to be saved is the sacrament of baptism (CCC 1257).
Source:https://www.catholic.com/qa/is-baptism-necessary-for-salvation-or-not
The Council of Trent----Session 6, canon 1 says..........
“If anyone says that the sinner is justified by faith alone, meaning that nothing else is required to cooperate in order to obtain the grace of justification and that it is not in any way necessary that he be prepared and disposed by the action of his own will, let him be anathema” (Session 6: can. 9).
Is Baptism Necessary for Salvation or Not?
The short answer is no, it’s not a contradiction. The key is explicated in paragraph 1257 of the Catechism of the Catholic Church: God has bound salvation to th...www.catholic.com