How is it an assumption when every other use of the phrase "sons of God " in the old testament indicates angels ?
It occurs five times in the Old Testament (Genesis 6:2, 4; Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7) .
Well, you could be right. If "sons of God" is the exclusive proper noun or identification for "angels," then I should think you're right. It would then be translated in the Septuagint as "angels."
I just don't think so. To me, it seems very myth-like, to have angels and women cohabit, much like the occult "Rosemary's Baby." But perhaps the film is based on the very real possibility that humans and angels can mate and procreate?
I don't think so, but I could be wrong too. Some may have an unhealthy interest in myths while others may have an unhealthy kind of skepticism? I have to watch myself!
These are things we have to determine for ourselves. It makes me nervous to indulge in things like this that seem to me so myth-like and on the edge of anything doctrinal or edifying. But again, I could be wrong.
I shouldn't think the Bible is warning women not to seek marital relationships with angels--nothing like it in the Bible except perhaps here? Again, it is a personal choice to believe this or not.
As I've said elsewhere "sons of God" can apply equally to angels or to humans. This seems obvious to me because "sons" ordinarily refers to procreated beings like people. We were told to "multiply and fill the earth"--this is not commanded of angels (that we know of).
However, God did create angels to be His "sons," so that term may apply to angels, as well. They are God's agents and worshipers--just like people. The term therefore fits in terms of an authority structure between God and either angels or men.
The Bible, however, is written to people, so I should think the focus of the term is more on people--not angels? As you indicated, the term is applied exclusively in Job to angels. And that specific term is not used much elsewhere in the OT scriptures.
If the term seems exclusively applied to angels, I would not base this on its exclusive use in one book--Job. Since the term in Gen 6 is controversial, I would not use that as proof that it applies to angels.
I would not be overly convinced by its exclusive use in Job since the theme of Job begins with this identification, and its regular use in the book is simply based on that particular theme. The book is a single unit with a regular motif. That is not to say other books cannot use the term dissimilarly with a different plot and a different regular use for the term.
There are synonyms for "sons of God" in both Hebrew and Greek, and they all apply to people. For example, in Deut 14.1...
"You are the children of the Lord your God."
The term "son of God" is used of an individual human in the OT, but is only described as such in the NT Scriptures.
Luke 3.38 the son of Enosh the son of Seth, the son of Adam, the son of God.
And the way that it is used suggests it could apply to a plurality of people, indicating "sons of God." In the early narrative, however, there are few large groups of people designated as "sons of God" because only one nation even tried to be that--Israel. And Israel had an experience of constant failure. Hence, they are "children of God," but often not growing up to be full-fledged "Sons of God."
The theme of "God's People" as a group begins in Gen 4 with the birth of Enosh, following initial obstructions by sin...
Gen 4.26 Seth also had a son, and he named him Enosh.
At that time people began to call on the name of the Lord.
Can we assume this is where the term "sons of God" originated? Perhaps. Luke seems to indicate that, even though the more common term came to be "children of God" or "people of God."
But we had a decline and descent into sin again in the community following Enosh and the Flood happened. The next effort was God's effort to make Israel "His People," which is just another synonym for "sons of God."
Clearly, sin continued to obstruct this process of making them faithful "children of God" until the NT provided legal guarantees for our status as such when we become Christians. Now we are called "sons of God."
We are not, however, angels! We will become "like angels," which Jesus said would be genderless, no longer marrying and reproducing to "fill the earth." The job of "filling the earth" would be over. That has never been the job of angels.
I can see the more exclusive use of the term "sons of God" to be used for angels in Job because there is no interest there in gender inclusion. But the term "sons of God" does include, or imply gender inclusion, in the NT Greek, meaning that the term does not *have to* apply only as Job did, to angels.
So, we do have the term "sons of God" applying to humans in the NT. That particular term just isn't used very often in the OT Scriptures. Job's use of the term would apply consistently to angels because his story is predicated upon that particular identification.
That doesn't at all mean that the use of the term in Gen 6 is also to be applied to angels. On the contrary, the term, as applied to procreating children, is 1st used in Gen 6, before any use by Job, which is placed specifically in the context of an angelic gathering. That specific context prevents it from being confused with its previous application to men, or so I theorize.
I've not really studied out all of the these terms, so all that I'm saying here is a tentative proposal. I can't, on such a limited basis, subscribe to something so "myth-like." But I'll grant you that your arguments are good and reasonable. You have to believe what you will. Take care....