Convince me from Scripture that the Father has NO beginning (which you and I believe because the Father is God) yet His Son DOES have a beginning and I'll change my bias to match yours. Not only does it make no logical sense (how can a father be a father without a son????), none of these Scripture answer my question; "Upon what OT or NT Scripture do you base a belief that "the Son" had a beginning?"
Colossians 1:15-18 [the Son] Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation, because all things were created by Him in the heavens and on the earth, the visible things and the invisible things— whether thrones or lordships or rulers or authorities. All things have been created through Him and for Him. And He Himself is before all things, and all things have existence in Him. And He Himself is the head of the body, the church. ... Who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, in order that He Himself might come-to-be holding-first-place in all things,
Not only does this passage NOT say anything about the Son having a beginning (He is the beginning of all things, not had one), it prohibits the Son from having a beginning anytime after "all things were created" (including unseen things). This is why I asked you already and you agreed that the Son pre-existed His birth as Jesus (and He did, as explicitly stated here and in other passge).
All things have been created through Him [the Son]. I can only image what things existed before the Father on your view, now. Regardless, Where you do get the idea of a beginning to the Son from this passage? And notice, that if it's because of the use of the title "firstborn" (which you seem to have word searched) then was "the Father" not "the Father" prior to 'birthing' the Son? What name do you give to a sonless father?
Wouldn't the same assumption you seem to be making for the Son based on the title "firstborn" apply to His Father???
If it's from the title "firstborn" where you get the idea of a beginning from this title? The Text (not me or my bias) tells you why the Son is called the "firstborn";
because all things were created by Him in the heavens and on the earth, the visible things and the invisible things—
Not because He had a beginning.
The resurrected Jesus IS the firstborn from the dead. Yet He pre-existed His resurrection! It's the same principle of His pre-existing the angels (unseen things) too!
Hebrews 1:5-6
For to which of the angels did He ever say
“You are my Son. Today I have fathered you”? Ps 2:7];
and again,
“I will be a father to Him, and He will be a son to Me”? 1 Chron 17:13.
And again, when He brings the Firstborn into the world He says in Deut 32:43 “And let all the angels of God give-worship to Him”.
The Son pre-existed even all the angels. That's why even the angels give-worship to Him as God (not as an angel). Same reason we do as firstborn of the dead. The Son pre-existed Adam. Adam will give Him worship. The Son pre-existed the angels. The angels will give Him worship. Again, this Text tells you why the Son has the title of 'firstborn". It does NOT say the Son had a beginning. It prohibits His beginning.
Hebrews 12:22-24 But you have come to Mount Zion; and the city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem; and the myriads of angels, a festive-gathering; and the church of the firstborn ones having been registered in the heavens; and the Judge, God of all; and the spirits of righteous ones having been perfected; and the mediator of the new covenant, Jesus; and the blood of sprinkling speaking better than Abel.
The Son is the God of "all", angels and humans! No bias needed.