None of these questions are derived from scripture.
They come from a belief system within your mind that is not based in scripture.
Here is an example of a question that is framed from scripture -
For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life.
For God did not send His Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved.
John 3:16-17
- For God so loved the world
Who
in the world is excluded from God’s love based on this scripture?
Everyone?
No one?
Some people?
My answer is
no one is excluded from God’s love.
- For God did not send His Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved.
Who
in the world is excluded from God’s plan to save the people of the world based on this scripture?
Everyone?
No one?
Some people?
My answer Is
no one is excluded from God’s plan of salvation for the world based on this scripture.
JLB
Your interpretation of this verse is unbiblical, because your conclusions are based on a premise that conflicts with the wider context of scripture. The Bible states clearly that not everyone is saved, and therefore God doesn't love those not saved, in the same way He loves those He saves. So then, your premise regarding how "the world" is defined is based on your own idea, not on the text of scripture. In the context of 1st Century Judea, there were 2 kinds of people, Jews and non-Jews (gentiles).
So one can easily see that Jesus talking about "the world" means that God doesn't exclude gentiles as the Jews thought He did. So "the world" in this sense means people of all races, nationalities, etc. This is what "God is not a respector of persons" means, as I explained before. God is not a Jew, Israelite, Semite, nor is He a racist. This is what it means. So when we take the wider context of the Bible into account, "the world" means some portion or subset of all people everywhere. And this interpretation is Biblical, as we see in Rev. 5:9b "thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation."
Now, notice it says "out of..." which means a subset. "Many are called, but few are chosen." So then, there is a general calling to all mankind, but a choosing (election) of some favorites for redemption. And how do these people become favorites, and what is God's motivation for making them favorites? Is God motivated to redeem only those who qualify themselves for it? Or does He redeem people who don't qualify, but rather is motivated by His own love, and His own purpose? Need we go into Rom. 9, Eph. 1 & 2, and other places to rehash what has been said previously?
If indeed you believe that grace is unmerited, as you seem to have claimed, then where is the motivation for God to redeem some and not others, if indeed He is motivated by His love, as it states in Eph. 1 and 2? If, as you claim, that God loves everyone the same (I say it's a false and unbiblical idea), then how does God decide to redeem some and not others?
Therefore, your objection to my question is invalid. My questions are based on the truth that is taught in scripture. You cannot dismiss the question and claim it is not Biblical, because I've shown it is Biblical. From where I'm looking, if you refuse to answer the question, then it just proves that you don't know what you're talking about. If you think the question is unbiblical, the burden of proof is on you to show it. How is anything in the Bible contrary to the question? You keep quoting John 3:16 to prove your point, but I am showing clearly that your interpretation is unbiblical. So I will keep asking the question which gets to the heart of the matter:
We are left with 3 doctrinal choices, if we are to think reasonably concerning the doctrine of grace:
1. God elects by random chance (we know this is not true)
2. God elects by a merited action of those He initiates a grace relationship
3. God does not love everyone the same, since grace is unmerited
Which one is it for you?
