From Chuck Clark:
Where I am coming from, as a former pastor (the least important qualification BTW); the more important is my having studied the Bible for over 60 years with the solid foundation of 5 years of Bible College that gave me the basic
principles of: 1st) what does the Bible actually SAY? That is, without reading anything INTO the text that isn't there! Technical terms, Exegesis rather than Eisegesis-- the former is simply opening up the truth of Scripture correctly. In order to do that we do need to know the tools to get to that truth i.e. first, but not practical for most of us is knowing the "original languages" (which I don't know, as is true of most of us), fortunately we do have many excellent versions of the Bible today with scholars who have that knowledge and do give us a pretty accurate understanding, but not completely.
Then, paying close attention to CONTEXT, in other words not taking single verses as a proof text. Actually, we need the near text-- the verses surrounding the verse-- but then the whole book itself and then expanded to the whole Bible!! Short sum of some of the other common-sense tools, like with any piece of literature. How the audience being written to, [like you point out that James is written to the 12 tribes, scattered abroad], would understand the points the author was getting at?
Next, getting to the "intent" of the writer and what he wanted to get across to his audience? Example, Paul to the Galatians and his amazement at their wanting to go back under the Law instead of enjoying their "freedom in Christ" as the end of the Law to all who believe by faith in His finished work on the cross! Next, to understand the audience. You need to know the historical setting in which they were living. How they would receive what the author was saying?
Lastly, for this writing, the genre, literal, symbolic, etc. A good rule of thumb is that "when the literal sense makes common sense, seek no other sense"!
Now getting to the seeming conflict between James, "show me your faith by your works" and Paul, "a man is justified BY FAITH ALONE" Since we know that God does not contradict Himself, we know there is a solution. To me it is pretty obvious, beyond the idea that James is talking about the Jews during the Tribulation period. That may or may not be the case, but for me it misses the direct answer. These are not contradictory statements at all, rather they are totally COMPLIMENTARY!
Here's why and how? James, as we know, is very practical and writes from what we can clearly observe from a human standpoint. If you say you have "GENUINE FAITH" you need to show it to be backed up by evidence in the way you live. He uses the example of Abraham, (the father of faith), he clearly showed that his faith was truly connected to God and was genuine SAVING FAITH, when he offered up Isaac ( the promised son) as a sacrifice to God on the alter on Mt. Moriah. Hebrews gives us the greater explanation as to how he could do such a thing: (context of the whole Bible), Heb. 11:19 "Abraham reasoned that God could raise the dead, and figuratively speaking, he did receive Isaac back from death. NIV As you should know almost the whole of Heb. 11 shows us how true faith was revealed by the "actions" of those listed there!
Paul, on the other hand, is writing from God's perspective: He knows everyone's heart, which we as men can't see, all we can see are the "works". A well know example shows what I am talking about. The life of David, particularly after his sin with Bathsheba and following murder of her husband and his cover up. Did he show during that time in his life that he had true faith. From a human observation we would say a definite no to his salvation.
Some of you who don't read the Scriptures as you may think you do as to what it actually SAYS, might say that if David had died during this time before he confessed and repented as we read in Psalm 32 and 51, after he was confronted by the prophet Nathan. Read carefully Psa. 51:11,12 esp. v. 12 "Restore to me the JOY of Thy salvation" Clearly, he did not lose his salvation, but the Joy of it
because of his covering it up his sin instead of confessing it and getting his heart right again. Notice to the phrase, "Thy Salvation" It is the Work of God, not of David or any man including you and me. If it were by "us" we for sure could and would lose it. It is totally of God and only by faith THAT HE ALONE GIVES US, that Christ's shed blood and Resurrected Life Justifies us in God's sight. Eph. 2:8-10 says it about as clear as any passage in Scripture, v8) For it is by Grace, (God's riches at Christ's Expense) you have been Saved, through faith--and it is not from yourselves, IT IS THE GIFT OF GOD--(can't be earned by our works!) v9) NOT BY WORKS, so that NO ONE CAN BOAST! 10) For we are GOD'S WORKMANSHIP, created IN CHRIST JESUS TO DO GOOD WORKS, which God prepared in advance for us to do. In other words, the works we do are not what saves us but they are the EVIDENCE that we have the Genuine Faith that we received from God alone!
So, Paul would agree with James that there should be the "Fruit of the Spirit" He, Jesus is the Vine, we are the branches, only when we are connected to Him do we produce the fruit. If a man does not have the Spirit, he is NONE OF HIS! As with David, we, still having our old nature as Paul described in Romans chap. 7 we too will have OUTWARD LAPSES! That is the context of the verse that tells us we are not to Judge, better word would be Condemn as though we are the final judge and can tell the person's heart, as to whether it is a lapse, or if the "good works" are an imitation of the real thing, coming from the Power of the Holy Spirit and not from the flesh?
There is much more that I could write to make the case, but hope this has been helpful and as part of this good platform, if you disagree, I welcome your feedback and reasons from Scripture for your disagreement.