1 John 1:8 (NASB95): "If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us."
The verb "have", in Greek is "ἔχομεν" (echomen) and, is in the present, active, indictive, first person plural (we have). This means, the author of the above verse, and the recipients had, after salvation, sin.
Thanks, but I have seen all of that before.
John is using an A-B, A-B, A-B format in 1 John 1.
Like Paul uses in Rom 8, where he juxtaposes those in the flesh with those who are in the Spirit.
John, however, is juxtaposing those who walk in darkness with those who walk in the light...which is God.
Verses 6, 8, and 10 address those walking in darkness-sin.
Verses 5, 7, and 9 address those who walk in the light-God.
As there is no sin in God, neither can there be sin in those who are walking in Him.
Those walking in darkness cannot honestly say they have no sin.
Those walking in the light, (v7), can say they have no sin because there is no sin in the light !
1 John 1:10 (NASB95): "If we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar and His word is not in us."
The adverb "not" in Greek is οὐχ (ouch) is a negative, participle. This is a past tense (have not). Notice the current "have sin" in this verse 8, vs. "have not" sinned in verse 10. Clearly, sin can occur after salvation. To say you do not sin, I refer you back to the last part of verse 8.
Same as verse 8, addressed to those who walk in darkness.
Jesus died to take away our sins.
If your POV is true, He failed to do His job.
I thank God for His success.