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Does man have free will to choose salvation?

You believe that redemption is only spiritual?
Yes .
Jesus has a body that was raised. he was resurrected as body bearing the wounds of
The cross
I would go as far as to say Jesus will be the only one in heaven with scars .
You also believe that a baby at one day is sinless and has access to the Godhead and isn't a Christian and yet must be taught by the way state this
Baby sinless , yes . God knows the rest .
Adam pre fall walked with God ,he didn't fear God .a baby would know Jesus and understand him.
There is no reason to fear God if you are a Christian . You are in deep here in the mind of a baby , not sure where that is taking you .
 
Yes .

I would go as far as to say Jesus will be the only one in heaven with scars .

Baby sinless , yes . God knows the rest .

There is no reason to fear God if you are a Christian . You are in deep here in the mind of a baby , not sure where that is taking you .
So then the fact that your body is resurrected and made for earth ,Jesus doesn't need to eat as he is God ,there is no sewer plants and water plants ,toilets in heaven .

My point is made you believe that death isn't ended nor sin because we have free will .

You literally said that a sinless person can choose sin as Adam did and then state a baby would .

Yet after the redemption there is no death ,no sin or sorrow .man can't sin as he simply won't because God took that option to choose it away .





Int
 
So with this there is no way that Jesus could avoid this " original sin " because he is seed of a woman .



Jesus was not defiled with sin because He was born of a virgin, not having a natural human father.

The sin was transferred to mankind by the man, through the corrupt seed (sperma). The woman is the host.


Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men… Romans 5:12


Sin entered through the man.




JLB
 
Jesus was not defiled with sin because He was born of a virgin, not having a natural human father.

The sin was transferred to mankind by the man, through the corrupt seed (sperma). The woman is the host.


Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men… Romans 5:12


Sin entered through the man.




JLB
In the genes is what you are saying correct ?

If so who put it in the genes ?
 
In the genes is what you are saying correct ?

If so who put it in the genes ?

When Adam sinned his DNA, his seed (sperm) became corrupt.


For as by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners, so also by one Man’s obedience many will be made righteous.
Romans 5:19
 
So how did the corruption get in the seed , who put it there ?

Scripture for this operation .

A transgression of the law of sin and death.

Sin was introduced into the bloodline of the human race because Adam transgressed the law of sin and death.


If someone decided to hike to the top of a mountain and then step off the edge, the law of gravity (an unseen law) goes into effect.

God doesn’t throw them to the ground, they just violated the law of gravity.
 
A transgression of the law of sin and death.
The curse of death brought on all of mankind by Adam's sin . I understand .

In the sweat of thy face shalt thou eat bread, till thou return unto the ground; for out of it wast thou taken: for dust thou art, and unto dust shalt thou return.

Sin was introduced into the bloodline of the human race because Adam transgressed the law of sin and death.
I can not find any reference to this happening in Genesis . If it did happen , who put the sin in the bloodline ?
 
The curse of death brought on all of mankind by Adam's sin . I understand .

In the sweat of thy face shalt thou eat bread, till thou return unto the ground; for out of it wast thou taken: for dust thou art, and unto dust shalt thou return.


I can not find any reference to this happening in Genesis . If it did happen , who put the sin in the bloodline ?
As long as you think of sin as undesirable, unruly behaviors, you don't understand what it means. Sin is disobedient to God, straying from God's design, that's human nature which can't be pinned down or attributed to any specific individual gene, but you know sin exists and it's inherent. "In the genes" is just a figure of speech. There had been numerous utopia experiments of living and raising babies in the "wilderness" far away from any human settlement and society, all ended up in disaster, in fact the seven deadly sins were discovered and catagorized in one early experiment after Constantin made Christianity the official state religion. So blaming sin on the environment and using babies to deflect is nothing but excuses.
 
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Man is by nature spiritually dead in sin, so he can choose nothing of a spiritual nature which salvation is of a spiritual nature. So until a man experiences a spiritual resurrection from spiritual death, he cant or wont chose any spiritually good thing.
 
The curse of death brought on all of mankind by Adam's sin . I understand .

In the sweat of thy face shalt thou eat bread, till thou return unto the ground; for out of it wast thou taken: for dust thou art, and unto dust shalt thou return.


I can not find any reference to this happening in Genesis . If it did happen , who put the sin in the bloodline ?

Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men… Romans 5:12

Again, because the head of the human race, Adam, violated the law of sin and death when he disobeyed the LORD, sin and death spread to all mankind.

Adam carried the seed that had been corrupted by his sin.

When Adam and Eve reproduced, they reproduced the sin into the bloodline of their offspring.







JLB
 
The Scriptures reveal that, because of the representative character of Adam in whose loins was the entire race (cf. Heb 7:9, 10), each and every one who comprises the race actually shared in the first sin and is therefore under the immediate sentence of death as a real imputation.

Does the cited passage in Hebrews 7 indicate anything at all about the believer today having shared in Adam's sin because s/he was "in his loins"? No. Not at all. What does it mean to "share in the sin of Adam" when one is born many millennia and thousands of generations removed from Adam and in another part of the world entirely? How, under these circumstances, does anyone today "share" in the sin Adam committed? We endure the effects of Adam's sin (death/spiritual separation from God), which the Bible clearly states, but there is no place in God's word that says you and I today "shared" in Adam's sinful choice Eden and so are complicit in (that is, actively participating in and thus bearing guilt for) what he did. The idea that we are is, on its face, obviously false.

Men die physically, not because of the fact that Adam sinned, but because of the fact that each member of the race, by divine reckoning, sinned when Adam disobeyed God.

Where is this actually stated in God's word? Nowhere. And so, in the quotation from Chafer, there is no accompanying Scripture that plainly anchors Chafer's idea about you and I having participated somehow in a sin committed millennia ago in distant part of the world by the First Man. We do, however, have the following plain statements in God's word that deny Chafer's thinking:

Ezekiel 18:20
20 "The person who sins will die. The son will not bear the punishment for the father's iniquity, nor will the father bear the punishment for the son's iniquity; the righteousness of the righteous will be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked will be upon himself.

Romans 5:12-14
12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned—
13 for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.


The first passage plainly forbids the idea of inherited guilt, the son bearing the wickedness of a father imputed to his son.

The second passage clearly emphasizes the DEATH that passed upon all men. Nowhere in the passage does Paul say that Adam's sin passed upon all mankind, only death. Paul indicates that all of us sin, yes, but he never says that you and I are birthed guilty of having committed Adam's sin. It is the natural consequence of the spiritual "death" that Adam's sin caused, the separation of all of Adam's seed from God spiritually, that leaves their natural impulses divinely unregulated and so inevitably producing sin. This is what makes all of us truly and properly guilty before God, not our participating in Adam's wickedness that occurred millennia before we existed.
 
Does the cited passage in Hebrews 7 indicate anything at all about the believer today having shared in Adam's sin because s/he was "in his loins"? No. Not at all. What does it mean to "share in the sin of Adam" when one is born many millennia and thousands of generations removed from Adam and in another part of the world entirely? How, under these circumstances, does anyone today "share" in the sin Adam committed? We endure the effects of Adam's sin (death/spiritual separation from God), which the Bible clearly states, but there is no place in God's word that says you and I today "shared" in Adam's sinful choice Eden and so are complicit in (that is, actively participating in and thus bearing guilt for) what he did. The idea that we are is, on its face, obviously false.



Where is this actually stated in God's word? Nowhere. And so, in the quotation from Chafer, there is no accompanying Scripture that plainly anchors Chafer's idea about you and I having participated somehow in a sin committed millennia ago in distant part of the world by the First Man. We do, however, have the following plain statements in God's word that deny Chafer's thinking:

Ezekiel 18:20
20 "The person who sins will die. The son will not bear the punishment for the father's iniquity, nor will the father bear the punishment for the son's iniquity; the righteousness of the righteous will be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked will be upon himself.

Romans 5:12-14
12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned—
13 for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.


The first passage plainly forbids the idea of inherited guilt, the son bearing the wickedness of a father imputed to his son.

The second passage clearly emphasizes the DEATH that passed upon all men. Nowhere in the passage does Paul say that Adam's sin passed upon all mankind, only death. Paul indicates that all of us sin, yes, but he never says that you and I are birthed guilty of having committed Adam's sin. It is the natural consequence of the spiritual "death" that Adam's sin caused, the separation of all of Adam's seed from God spiritually, that leaves their natural impulses divinely unregulated and so inevitably producing sin. This is what makes all of us truly and properly guilty before God, not our participating in Adam's wickedness that occurred millennia before we existed.
Rom 5:12 says all have sinned, what can be plainer ? Rom 5:12

Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: All sinned in Adam
 
Rom 5:12 says all have sinned, what can be plainer ? Rom 5:12

Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: All sinned in Adam

Apparently, you didn't actually read my post. Without a Calvinist lens through which to understand the verse, your conclusion is not at all evident.
 
Apparently, you didn't actually read my post. Without a Calvinist lens through which to understand the verse, your conclusion is not at all evident.
Rom 5:12 says all have sinned, what can be plainer ? Rom 5:12

Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: All sinned in Adam
 
Rom 5:12 says all have sinned, what can be plainer ? Rom 5:12

Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: All sinned in Adam

Got a link to your edition of Rom 5:12 that has the 4 words at the end of the verse as you posted , All sinned in Adam ?
 
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