About the Son of God
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- Feb 17, 2013
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Re: Freewill religion is the Man of Sin ! - Part 2
Right. So what about people with no nation? Is there no desire for them in basic Calvinistic view ?
Wow. So, messenger was just saying basic Calvinism stuff, but doing it very baadly. (sheepish grin.)
If he doesn't say "TULIP", I guess I'm not quick enough to catch the inference.
If it were the sentence of 1Tim 2:4 in isolation, I'd have to accept his position. All isn't definitive by itself. But, don't you think the fact that it's nestled in heretic city, and prayers for Nero the 666 King makes that a bit unusual; to say right after praying for this King, and these heretics as part of "All MEN", and that God desires "all MEN" to be saved doesn't mean these men?
I think it's odd.
I think it's really strange, even.
I mean, that God (who is love) loves all men equally, but depending on whether they're in a nation or not, some men are more equal than others. And if it's not the nation which makes the difference, what is it?
I know, for example, that we are commanded to love our enemy; because, God does it.
I know, for example, that the translators of the bible use "Hate" as an opposite to love, but where in Greek -- it doesn't have the connotation of "malice" like it does in English.
I think this is important, for it makes ideas like this one ... :
Luke 14:26 If any man come to me, and hate not his father, and mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and his own life also, he cannot be my disciple.
: ... To be understood in the sense of loving one's wife less than we love Jesus the Christ, BUT BUT not in the sense of bearing them MALICE.
For, what is this, that Paul says -- if we must hate our wives maliciously?
Ephes 5:25 Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it;
It's going to take a pretty strong verse from somewhere, and a GOOD explanation, to convince me that love in God somehow means hate in the American or English sense of the word.
Maybe this Calvin guy just took the English translation for granted, but I dig a little deeper than that myself.
Or maybe Calvin was just called heretic so often that he thought that the heretics mentioned in Timothy and mr. 666 king, were actually saved.
I dunno... but something's really wrong with his view.
God may love one less than another, in one matter or another, but none the less -- he loves each and every one of us.
God hates nothing HE has made, or else I *REALLY* don't see why he would have made it. ( He might really hate something I make, though... )
But: If man is the image of God (Genesis 1:27), then clearly -- God made that image in ALL MEN. Every last one of us. (Women too, obviously included as part of man, right from the prime rib and not a walking mat at the feet.)
So, on what grounds do they claim -- or what example can they show -- where God damns one of two men, for no reason but just to damn him?
I think he really does desire that all men come to salvation.
Am I really way off base here?
This is basic Calvinism. When the Bible says "all men" it doesn't mean 'ALL men". What it means is that the chosen ones, come from "all" different nations, races, genders, etc. This is what they refer to as God not being a respecter of persons. It's as if it says, "It is the will of God that men from all nations, genders, races, will be saved.
Right. So what about people with no nation? Is there no desire for them in basic Calvinistic view ?
See the 'of'. So it is individuals but not All individuals.
Wow. So, messenger was just saying basic Calvinism stuff, but doing it very baadly. (sheepish grin.)
If he doesn't say "TULIP", I guess I'm not quick enough to catch the inference.
If it were the sentence of 1Tim 2:4 in isolation, I'd have to accept his position. All isn't definitive by itself. But, don't you think the fact that it's nestled in heretic city, and prayers for Nero the 666 King makes that a bit unusual; to say right after praying for this King, and these heretics as part of "All MEN", and that God desires "all MEN" to be saved doesn't mean these men?
I think it's odd.
I think it's really strange, even.
I mean, that God (who is love) loves all men equally, but depending on whether they're in a nation or not, some men are more equal than others. And if it's not the nation which makes the difference, what is it?
I know, for example, that we are commanded to love our enemy; because, God does it.
I know, for example, that the translators of the bible use "Hate" as an opposite to love, but where in Greek -- it doesn't have the connotation of "malice" like it does in English.
I think this is important, for it makes ideas like this one ... :
Luke 14:26 If any man come to me, and hate not his father, and mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and his own life also, he cannot be my disciple.
: ... To be understood in the sense of loving one's wife less than we love Jesus the Christ, BUT BUT not in the sense of bearing them MALICE.
For, what is this, that Paul says -- if we must hate our wives maliciously?
Ephes 5:25 Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it;
It's going to take a pretty strong verse from somewhere, and a GOOD explanation, to convince me that love in God somehow means hate in the American or English sense of the word.
Maybe this Calvin guy just took the English translation for granted, but I dig a little deeper than that myself.
Or maybe Calvin was just called heretic so often that he thought that the heretics mentioned in Timothy and mr. 666 king, were actually saved.
I dunno... but something's really wrong with his view.
God may love one less than another, in one matter or another, but none the less -- he loves each and every one of us.
God hates nothing HE has made, or else I *REALLY* don't see why he would have made it. ( He might really hate something I make, though... )
But: If man is the image of God (Genesis 1:27), then clearly -- God made that image in ALL MEN. Every last one of us. (Women too, obviously included as part of man, right from the prime rib and not a walking mat at the feet.)
So, on what grounds do they claim -- or what example can they show -- where God damns one of two men, for no reason but just to damn him?
I think he really does desire that all men come to salvation.
Am I really way off base here?
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