Well, if Jesus was God incarnate, as the Bible says he was (John 1:1-3; Colossians 1:15-20; Colossians 2:9; 2 Peter 1:1, etc.), then his words to Satan concerning worshiping God would be a command to Satan to worship himself. And so he didn't say to Satan, "We should worship God," only that Satan should worship God. As well, the prayers of Jesus would necessarily be of a different sort to our own since Jesus was a part of the Trinity, sharing in the divine nature in a way no human has ever enjoyed. As the God-Man, Christ's prayers would be for communion with God not worship of Him.
This doesn't answer my question. In speaking to Hebrew people, possessing their own distinct language, God would communicate to them in that language. I must do the same when I travel to, say, Japan. When Japanese people speak my name it is not much at all like my name spoken in my native English. It stands to reason that this is the case with God's name, too. The Tetragrammaton is actually a purposeful contraction (and thus distortion) of God's name, but it is silly to think that from eternity past God was referring to Himself as "YHWH." The Hebrew people did this, in part, in recognition of the greatness of God, trying to show respect to His name. But God isn't a Hebrew human, needing, or wanting, to show respect to a higher, divine power; He is the higher, divine power. I think God's actual name - if He even has one in the way we think of names - is quite unlike the distorted versions of it we take up - just like the Japanese people in Osaka, or Tokyo, who speak my name. It's a bit silly, then, to fuss over which one of His many names given in His word is the best - and only - name to use in reference to Him.
This is all a kind of Begging the Question, I'm afraid. Assertions are not an effective argument - especially when they assert as a given what they are proposing to justify or establish.