chessman
Member
What about in the resurrection?That doesn't alter the fact I have never ever in a long life met one Christian who claims to be and demonstrates perfection.
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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What about in the resurrection?That doesn't alter the fact I have never ever in a long life met one Christian who claims to be and demonstrates perfection.
What about in the resurrection?
Oz, I understand and agree with you about this lifetime. I simply asked you a different question. What about the next life in the resurrection? Does God have plans for our perfection in the resurrection?This is a red herring.
Oz, I understand and agree with you about this lifetime. I simply asked you a different question. What about the next life in the resurrection? Does God have plans for our perfection in the resurrection?
Because it pertains to the history of the church.Why don't you start a new thread that relates to this topic?
Right, it’s simply a cognate.The Greek word in Matt 5:48 is not telos, but is based on that root word,
It is teleios [plural teleioi]. It refers to a goal and I don’t know one single word in English to convey its meaning.
Which is why I asked you about it occuring in the resurrection. It says you “shall be perfect”, not that you are now perfect.It doesn’t mean absolute sinlessness, just like God cannot sin, because if we go back to Matt 5:6, the disciples are blessed if they ‘hunger and thirst for righteousness’.
Amen.Please note that in this verse it is not in the singular but plural, so it refers to a group of believers (here the disciples) becoming mature.
Therefore, I conclude that ‘perfect’ is not the meaning of teleios.
Hi WIP,One question that came to me. In the part about baptism, I do not see how it would apply to infants. It says, "Having first rehearsed all these things," which to me sounds like something an infant couldn't possibly do. With this said, how then did the early Church begin to allow infant baptism?
1. Concerning baptism, baptise thus: Having first rehearsed all these things, "baptise, in the Name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost," in running water;
2. But if thou hast no running water, baptise in other water, and if thou canst not in cold, then in warm.
3. But if thou hast neither, pour water three times on the head "in the Name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost."
4. And before the baptism let the baptiser and him who is to be baptised fast, and any others who are able. And thou shalt bid him who is to be baptised to fast one or two days before.
This is my first exposure to the Didache so forgive my ignorance. Does the Church, adopt any portion of the Didache?Hi WIP,
Sorry this reply took so long...
I wanted to make a comment on no. 4 but I have a difficult time writing when on the phone...
Anyway, the didache, just like any other manuscript from that era, will not be perfectly pure. It started out being very simple teachings from the Apostles and those that came after them...but it's believed that some teachings may have been added later on and it's anybody's guess which manuscript was actually found...I doubt it would be the original.
Item 4 very clearly has additions to it that are not biblical...it was someone's idea that before baptism fasting should take place. If this were that important to follow, I do believe the N.T. writers would have stated it in their instructions.
My guess would be that at least 95% of the didache is "pure" and not tampered with. I'm not a scholar but have read much about it and it is an interesting document to familiarize oneself with.
You put the Church with a capital C...that means the Body of Christ.This is my first exposure to the Didache so forgive my ignorance. Does the Church, adopt any portion of the Didache?
Yes, you understood my use of the capital C.You put the Church with a capital C...that means the Body of Christ.
I think we've put 95% of it into practice...
There's some stuff chapter 7 and 8 that are superflous... Let me see if I could find it ...
OK WIP, I read through it fast...This is my first exposure to the Didache so forgive my ignorance. Does the Church, adopt any portion of the Didache?
There you go C,,,,hanging onto every word!!But I say to you not to resist the evil person. But whoever slaps you on your right cheek, turn the other to him also.Matthew 5:39 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Matthew 5:39&version=DLNT
Jesus didn’t say anything about being perfect based on turning your cheek. It’s commentary.
Yep, every word is important.There you go C,,,,hanging onto every word!!
He didn't actually mean that we should be perfect...it meant doing our best..
Hi Oz,wondering,
There are a number of questions surrounding the finding of a copy of Didache, meaning 'teaching', i.e. The Teaching = Teaching of the twelve apostles.
The Didache's existence was not known until it was discovered in AD 1873 in a monastery by Philotheos Bryannios, a Greek Orthodox metropolitan bishop of Nicomedia (modern Turkey). It was published in AD 1883. This makes its dating highly speculative.
It doesn't indicate any external indicators regarding its date of writing, but does refer extensively to the Gospel of Matthew. The authors of the document are not mentioned.
Among scholars, it is estimated it was written about AD 50-70. Others consider ca. 100 is a posibility.
Other complicating factors are that the MSS were written in Koine Greek, but copies have been found in Syriac, Latin and Coptic. So, its origin is speculative
There are references to the Didache in early church historian Eusebius (ca. AD 360-345) of Caesarea., as well as some of the Church Fathers such as Athanasius, Origen, and Rufinus. (source: Ancient History Encyclopedia: Didache)
Eusebius wrote:
Among the rejected writings must be reckoned also the Acts of Paul, and the so-called Shepherd, and the Apocalypse of Peter, and in addition to these the extant epistle of Barnabas, and the so-called Teachings of the Apostles (Didache) and besides, as I said, the Apocalypse of John, if it seem proper, which some, as I said, reject, but which others class with the accepted books (Eusebius, Church History, 3.25.4)
Didache has very interesting teaching on baptism in chapter 7 (very brief).
There is an excellent assessment of the content of Didache in William Varner's, 'The Didache's Use of the Old and New Testaments'.
Oz
Thanks Oz.wondering,
It's true that Matt 5:48 (NIV) teaches, ‘Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect’.
How is it possible for people born into sin who are sinners to be perfect as the heavenly Father is perfect. That sounds like an impossibility to me.
These four translations demonstrate how ‘perfect’ as an English meaning may not be the best understanding of the koine Greek for that word. Let’s seek some further information.
- The KJV states, ‘Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect’’
- The NRSV translation, ‘Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect’.
- International Standard Version (ISV): ‘So be perfect [or mature], as your heavenly Father is perfect [or mature]’.
- Revised English Bible (REB): ‘There must be no limit to your goodness, as your heavenly Father’s goodness knows no bounds’.
The problem we have is with the English meaning of ‘perfect’ that communicates the idea of complete or absolute sinlessness. Even with Jesus living in me, I’m incapable of that standard – because I have a sinful nature that God does not have.
What are the alternatives?
(1) Either God is requiring something I cannot attain (perfection) – which makes God a liar (which He is not – Heb 6:18), or
(2) In the original languages, ‘perfection’ has a meaning that is difference from our English connotation.
What is the meaning of the Greek teleios (perfection)? That should give us the clue to the meaning of Matt 5:48.
Oz
Yes TF,,,it was used for teaching, so some of man's idealogy will be found there. It's not a verbatum translation of the N.T.....i like most of what is in the didache because it matches scripture
3. Now, the teaching of these words is this: "Bless those that curse you, and pray for your enemies, and fast for those that persecute you. For what credit is it to you if you love those that love you? Do not even the heathen do the same?" But, for your part, "love those that hate you," and you will have no enemy. - scripture does not say that if we love our enemies we will have no enemies - it tells us to love our enemies even though they are our enemies
5. Give to everyone that asks thee, and do not refuse, for the Father's will is that we give to all from the gifts we have received. Blessed is he that gives according to the mandate; for he is innocent; but he who receives it without need shall be tried as to why he took and for what, and being in prison he shall be examined as to his deeds, and "he shall not come out thence until he pay the last farthing."
on part 1 point 5 seems to be at odds with points 1-4 - also i can't think of a scripture that matches point 5 - points 1-4 say to love forgive turn the other cheek but then point 5 says to put in prison - presumably debtor's prison - until every last farthing is paid back - this causes me to read with caution - it appears man is inputting his own ideology into this document - either the supposed original author or someone who later copied or translated
Matthew 18:28-34 says the wicked servant who was forgiven a million dollar debt then went and threw his fellow servant in jail for a 10 dollar debt - so the king had this wicked servant thrown into prison for being so pettily unforgiving of a tiny debt until he paid the million dollars back to the last penny - so point 5 seems like a harsh misinterpretation/twist of scripture on forgiving debt
OK C,Yep, every word is important.
But he answered and said, “It is written, ‘Man will not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes out of the mouth of God.”Matthew 4:4 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Matthew 4:4&version=LEB
“Therefore you shall be perfect, as your heavenly Father is perfect.Matthew 5:48 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Matthew 5:48&version=DLNT
Is our Heavenly Father simply doing His best or is He actually perfect?
Not that I have already received this, or have already been made perfect, but I press on if indeed I may lay hold of that for which also I was laid hold of by Christ.Philippians 3:12 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Philippians 3:12&version=LEB
But Paul and others and you are right, we’re not yet perfect. But we most certainly “shall be”.
Oh, and we’ll be made that way by God, not ourselves.
Sure. I’m:Do you have anything at all to do with your salvation?
I don't have all these answers WIP. But here are some interesting links:I have another question.
The procedure described for baptism also first requires running water. It doesn't say the one being baptized must be submerged but it does indicate it required running water. At the time this was written, about the only available running water would likely have been a river or possibly some kind of ductwork or ditch.
Baptizing in a stagnate pool or tub was only a second option if running water was not available. And finally, pouring water over the head was a third and last option if neither of the other two were available.
In other words, baptism was not to be done the way most do it today out of convenience.
Sorry for all the questions about the section on baptism, but it seems that what the Didache taught is quite different from what even the Catholic church embraces, even though the CC claims to follow the rules as much as possible. It doesn't seem there are many churches if any that follow the Didache as written.
There's merit in infant baptism only if you believe that Adam's sin is imputed to all that are born. In that case it would cleanse this original sin from the newborn. Otherwise, it's purely a ritual.my self i find no merit in infant baptism i was raised methodist they sprinkle not sure on infants