The idea of a Triune God is not foreign to the Tanakh.
Where do we see YWHW in the plural?
Gen. 1:26 "Then God said, "Let us make man in our image, in our likeness, and let them rule over the fish of the sea and the birds of the air, over the livestock, over all the earth, and over all the creatures that move along the ground."'
(We also see this in Gen. 2:22 and 11:7)
Isiah 6:8 "Then I heard the voice of the Lord saying, "Whom shall I send? And who will go for us?"
And I said, "Here am I. Send me!"'
(We also see this in Isiah 48:16 and 61:1)
There are other passages, I just felt six was enough
.
The very first line of the Bible reads: "In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth." Now, the translation confusion is rather simple. The word God is singular in our English translation, but if we go to the Hebrew translation we see it is actually the plural word for God, i.e. Gods (Actually, the word is "Elohiym" in Hebrew and it refers to more than two gods).
How do we know that there are not just multiple gods? (This is just for the sake of making it known, we all know their is only one God!) We turn to Deuteronomy 6:4 and it explicitly tells us that the Lord of Israel is the ONE God.
It would appear that there is a contradiction in the Tanakh and until Christ came along and the NT clarified this that contradiction remained, but this is not so! Genesis 1:2 reads: "The earth was formless and void, and darkness was over the surface of the deep, and the Spirit of God was moving over the surface of the waters. "It says "Spirit of God", we as Christians know this as the Holy Spirit, our gift from God for accepting Jesus as our Lord and Savior. So there we have it, God the Father was at least accompanied by one other form, God the Spirit (And we know from the Hebrew word "Elohim" that there has to be MORE than 2 so...).
Next we go to the very next line, again! Genesis 1:3 reads: "Then God said, "Let there be light"; and there was light. " You see, the line that says "God said", that means Jesus. How do we know this? Because Jesus is the Word of God (John 1:1-3). Whenever we see the Lord speaking int he Old Testament, we as Christians know that it is Christ who is speaking, because He is the Word. But, how would the Jews know? We turn again to Isiah for that,
Isiah 48:1 "'Come near me and listen to this:
"From the first announcement I have not spoken in secret;
at the time it happens, I am there."
And now the Sovereign Lord has sent me,
with his Spirit.'"
Now, I'll be yelled at for "twisting" scripture, and hopefully that person will just up and block me. Though, I must wonder, is it possible to look at the Tanakh and fully understand it without the Gospel? We are often told that the Jews are the first and last say on the Tanakh, however if they have not read the Gospel, are they really all that "enlightened" in all the intricate workings of the Tanakh? I'd like to get a messianic Jew's take on what I have said above.
Also, for the person who does say that the Jews know so much more about the Tanakh, I'd like to point out that they spend FAR more time reading the Talmud than they do the Tanakh. If you do not understand what I just said... Imagine, instead of reading the Bible, reading the sparknotes version of the Bible with commentary plus a lot of extra junk added in the last 2000 years