Yeah, at this point, I think we're done with this discussion and it's not false doctrine. It is yourIf you are intent in defending false doctrine, I can't change your mind.
interpretation that is based upon incorrect understanding
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Yeah, at this point, I think we're done with this discussion and it's not false doctrine. It is yourIf you are intent in defending false doctrine, I can't change your mind.
It is written...Until becoming saved no one has "heard" the word with spiritual ears - maybe they have with physical ears but those aren't good enough for salvation. Spiritual ears that hear are solely from becoming born-again by the Holy Spirit, but which occurs after, and as a result of salvation, not before.
But I understand the crux of your question. I think the answer to it is that no one is saved by anything they may do to include the hearing of the gospel. Unless someone is first born-again, even though they may hear the gospel a million times it will have no effect upon them because they are spiritually deaf to it - they will be oblivious to it. People become saved for one reason and one reason only: that God had chosen to save them before the foundation of the world. For those whom He as so chosen, He assumes the responsibility, that at a time of His choosing, by one way or another, He guarantees they will be exposed to it, and as a result of that, they come to a true faith in Christ (that faith also being a gift) - but that faith is not what saves - it is all from His work alone, none the work of the recipient - it is fully and completely a gift - that's what makes it of mercy and grace.
[Mar 4:11-12 KJV]
11 And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all [these] things are done in parables:
12 That seeing they may see, and not perceive; and hearing they may hear, and not understand; lest at any time they should be converted, and [their] sins should be forgiven them.
If you have some thing to accuse my long dead brother and sister of, say on.Death is from sin - there can't be one without the other, and it is not my doctrine it is the Bible's. Anyway, the doctrine condemns everyone who is born.
If it is someone's choice that decides who is to be saved, then no one would be.
As babies are not under a law of any sort, your point is ludicrous.[1Co 15:56 KJV] 56 The sting of death [is] sin; and the strength of sin [is] the law.
It is false doctrine.Yeah, at this point, I think we're done with this discussion and it's not false doctrine. It is your
interpretation that is based upon incorrect understanding
We are all born with a love of the law of sin and death within our hearts. Its presence is not a function of human age, it
is a function of spirit and of Adam's sin:
No I will not explain it now.Could you explain how people who have never heard of Jesus and His sacrifice on the cross to pay for the sins of the world, are saved?
I attempted to explain it with what followed, maybe I need to say it differentlyHi brightfame52,
Sorry, I'm not exactly sure what you're getting at here?
I just can't believe you are saying that
man's salvation is dependent in any part upon what they may do - I know you better than that -- I must be misunderstanding your point.
You have my head spinning with this comment.You are definitely correct in that those who are saved are under the law of Christ, but it is the law itself that places someone under itself, it is not by a person's actions. If it were, I would think that would make it from work not grace.
I think the curse of the law, is that the curse IS the law.
You kidding right ? Its so happen to mentions a paradise side to hell Lk 16:19-26Not sure re Lk16 - I'll have to reread
19 There was a certain rich man, which was clothed in purple and fine linen, and fared sumptuously every day:
20 And there was a certain beggar named Lazarus, which was laid at his gate, full of sores,
21 And desiring to be fed with the crumbs which fell from the rich man's table: moreover the dogs came and licked his sores.
22 And it came to pass, that the beggar died, and was carried by the angels into Abraham's bosom: the rich man also died, and was buried;
23 And in hell he lift up his eyes, being in torments, and seeth Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom.
24 And he cried and said, Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip the tip of his finger in water, and cool my tongue; for I am tormented in this flame.
25 But Abraham said, Son, remember that thou in thy lifetime receivedst thy good things, and likewise Lazarus evil things: but now he is comforted, and thou art tormented.
26 And beside all this, between us and you there is a great gulf fixed: so that they which would pass from hence to you cannot; neither can they pass to us, that would come from thence.
okay, and you get what out of this ? What am I missing here ?[Mat 27:53-54 KJV]
52 And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose,
53 And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many.
54 Now when the centurion, and they that were with him, watching Jesus, saw the earthquake, and those things that were done, they feared greatly, saying, Truly this was the Son of God.
Thanks, brightfame52, sorry - my misunderstanding - no offense intended!Yes you are misunderstanding me, you know I dont believe any part of Salvation is conditioned on man, I dont even see how you thought I meant or stated that rog ! What part of the post made you wonder about that, just curious !
You have my head spinning with this comment.
Laws of The Law are good - they inform us of appropriate standards of behavior, however, the curse for the unsaved is to be under the authority of The Law at all.I dont follow you on that, Ypu may need to clarify more. I believe the Law is essentially Holy and Good Rom 7:12
Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good. it emanates out of the Holy Good God !
I didn't mean to imply that it doesn't pertain, just that I haven't looked at all pertinent verses for that topic for a while and didn't want to make my reply appear focused only upon those. That's why I said in both OT and NT.You kidding right ? Its so happen to mentions a paradise side to hell Lk 16:19-26
okay, and you get what out of this ? What am I missing here ?
It is written...
We have our part in our salvation.
- Psalm 9:10
And they that know thy name will put their trust in thee: for thou, Lord, hast not forsaken them that seek thee.- Psalm 10:4
The wicked, through the pride of his countenance, will not seek after God: God is not in all his thoughts.
[Jhn 8:43, 47 KJV]For anyone listening, God said,
From the time I brought your ancestors up from Egypt until today, I warned them again and again, saying, “Obey me.”
But they did not listen or pay attention; instead, they followed the stubbornness of their evil hearts. So I brought on them all the curses of the covenant I had commanded them to follow but that they did not keep.’ ” Jer.11:7-8
It's obvious God gave them the ability to understand, so when a passage says they didn't hear him, we know it's because they loved their sin more than God. It's that simple.
That's kind of an odd response to two Psalms saying some do "seek".[Rom 3:11 KJV] 11 There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God.
There are NONE who seek after God of themselves. Even in Psalm 9:10 which you quoted, tells us that only
those who know the name of God and have placed their trust in Him, that is, those who have become saved, seek Him. In other words, salvation is the causation, seeking is its result. The unsaved, of themselves, will never seek the true God.
We can know this because everyone unsaved is in and remains in, the "none that seeketh after God" group.
Pray for the people who ARE of God.[Jhn 8:43, 47 KJV]
43 Why do ye not understand my speech? [even] because ye cannot hear my word. ...
47 He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear [them] not, because ye are not of God.
Now look at what they said to him,[Jhn 8:43, 47 KJV]
43 Why do ye not understand my speech? [even] because ye cannot hear my word. ...
47 He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear [them] not, because ye are not of God.
When Paul says, There is none that does good, no not one, he doesn't mean people can't repent. He's simply comparing Jews and gentiles. He explained Jews with the law and gentiles by conscience are sinners. That's all he's saying.That's kind of an odd response to two Psalms saying some do "seek".
If a person hears of Jesus, or of His Father, and is interested in learning more, God will not hide from him.
You would be better off considering Rom 3 in the context it was originally written in, and about.
Things change from generation to generation.
Paul quoted Ps 14, and 53, to get Rom 3:11.
Both written by David, concerning fools.
That leaves all those who were not foolish, to seek God.
I do realize that, and am glad you see it too.When Paul says, There is none that does good, no not one, he doesn't mean people can't repent. He's simply comparing Jews and gentiles. He explained Jews with the law and gentiles by conscience are sinners. That's all he's saying.
Things change from generation to generation.
Jews believed (and still do to this day) that because they're descended from Abraham, they are Gods' chosen people no matter what they believe and do. This they learned from their rabbis.
Our Lord was correcting them, telling them they "hear them not" because they believed otherwise. Jesus never told anyone people are incapable of repenting. He did teach love of sin keeps people from repenting. It's that easy and contradicts no scripture.
Right. Everytime Paul teaches on the purpose of the law, it's for humility in oneself, not pride in oneself.I do realize that, and am glad you see it too.
Paul was just trying to make the Jews see that they needed the Redeemer as much as the Gentiles did.
And that neither of the groups was "good enough" in the condition they were then in.