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The word in incarnate doesn't exist in Scripture nor is the concept described. Incarnating isn't a Biblical concept. So your premise doesn't follow to a right conclusion.
Nothing there states that Jesus is God in the flesh. I believe your thesis is based on assumption and belief rather than Scripture.
Nothing in the Bible says Jesus is intrinsically God or both God and man. All of your points and conclusions lack key Biblical support.
"In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe. The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty in heaven. (Heb. 1:1-3)
Tell me what word or concept you would use to describe "God (He) was manifest in the Flesh"? And what form before flesh?
"God was manifest in the flesh" is also debatable. Yes it's true that even though the KJV says such in 1 Tim. 3:16, there is controversy about that manuscript. Apparently it's a late addition and doesn't exist in older manuscripts. The scholarly consensus, though they mourn the loss of a prooftext, is that "God was manifest in the flesh" is false.
What about John 1:14 same concept and there is no textual criticism to this verse that would change this meaning (Incarnated would be the correct english word to use)
The humanity of Jesus, often referred to as the Word made flesh, did indeed have a beginning in time, as seen in the incarnation when the eternal Word took on human form (John 1:14). However, the Self-Expressive Word of God, which is the divine Logos, is uncreated and has always existed. This Word is not a separate entity from God but is intrinsic to His very nature, much like how a man and his word are inseparable. To suggest that the omnipotent God is incapable of manifesting Himself in flesh while remaining omnipresent would be to misunderstand the nature of God’s infinite power and presence. The account of God revealing Himself to Moses in a single tangible location (Exodus 33:21-23) while still being omnipresent with His people demonstrates His ability to be both immanent and transcendent. In the same way, Jesus is the visible image of the invisible God (Colossians 1:15), fully embodying the fullness of the Godhead (Colossians 2:9) while God’s presence continues to fill the heavens and the earth. This understanding is crucial in recognizing the unique and profound mystery of the Incarnation, where God, in His infinite wisdom, chose to dwell among us as both fully God and fully man, bridging the gap between divinity and humanity.
Could you first please explain the three quotations that I mentioned: Matthew 1:20-21, Luke 1:34-35, John 1-14. Was Jesus a human, a creature?
If Jesus actually pre-existed his time on earth then it for sure wasn't as God. It would have either been as a god, perhaps an angel, or a human (John 1:1, 1 Corinthians 15:49.) I firmly believe that the idea that God incarnated would be nothing short of the perpetuation of idolatry and sin so it isn't a practical concept. As it is, God denied being a man at all in Hosea 11:9 and others directly stated God isn't a man or the son of man in Numbers 23:19 and 1 Samuel 15:29. Already there is no premise to support the conclusion.
Worship in scripture doesn't always equate to the one doing the worshipping is actually making someone out to be God such as the example of Nathan in 1 Kings 1:23 where he worshipped the kind. Prophet Nathan is a heinous idolator now? That isn't the idea being conveyed despite the same word for worship being used to describe Nathan's bowing.
So Moses who was talking and worshipping God through a burning bush (tangible representation of God) that was Idol worship?
Luke 4:8, "And Jesus answered and said unto him, Get thee behind me, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve."
Hello My Rock, I have been viewing your threads, but I found this one is a good statement, maybe in times of thinking I would call it taking heed to oneself, would you? Deuteronomy 4:9 KJV, 1 Timothy 4:16 KJV
Thanks
The Son took on flesh in the person of Jesus. The Son has always been and John just used the word Logos in speaking of his eternal preexistence.
The Word took on flesh, so He could be the Son of God.