Many verses of Scripture distinguish between the Father and Son in power, greatness, and knowledge. However, it is a great mistake to use them to show two persons in the Godhead.
The mistake is to say that they are one and the same person. I find it interesting that you haven't actually addressed any of the arguments I have made regarding the Father and Son relationship and how that communicates something to us. If they are essentially one and the same person, then such a revelation is meaningless. We
know without a doubt that it is nonsense to say that a father is his own son or a son is his own father. To make them the same makes God unknowable--he says he is a Father, but we have no idea what that could mean; Jesus claims to be the Son of God, but we have no idea what that could mean.
All biblical understanding is grounded in the revelation that God is triune, that there has always existed a Father and Son (and the Spirit) in an intimate, loving relationship.
If a distinction exists between Father and Son as persons in the Godhead, then the Son is subordinate or inferior to the Father in deity. This would mean the Son is not fully God, because by definition God is subject to no one.
No. Your conclusion doesn't follow. As James White says, "Difference in function does not indicate inferiority of nature." The Son, begotten from all eternity, cannot cease to be God, because God cannot cease to be God. I discuss this below.
By definition, God has all power (omnipotence) and all knowledge (omniscience). The way to understand these verses is to view them as distinction between the deity of Jesus (the Father) from the humanity of Jesus (the Son). As a man, Christ was subordinate to the Spirit of God that dwelt in Him.
Yet, Scripture adequately shows that the Son has always existed, that he was the agent of creation, as I discuss below.
Passages which speak of Jesus praying are either, Jesus as God prayed to the Father or Jesus as man prayed to the Father. If the former were true, then we have a form of subordinationism or Arianism in which one person in the Godhead is inferior to, not coequal with, another person in the Godhead. This contradicts the biblical concept of one God, the full deity of Jesus, and the omnipotence of God. If the second alternative is correct, and we believe that it is, then no distinction of persons in the Godhead exists.
This is confusing the difference in how the three persons have always existed as God in and of himself, in unity, and the relationship of the three persons for the purposes of creation and redemption. The Father begat or generated the Son, the Son is begotten, and the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son, from all eternity. As such, they are all coequal in power, glory, and being. This is what passages such as John 1:1-3 state. The Father sends the Son for the purpose of our redemption, the Son is willingly sent to acquire our redemption, and the Holy Spirit convicts the world of sin and works in and helps believers in various ways by applying Christ's redemption.
When looking at the plan of redemption, the Son willingly submits to the Father (Phil 2:6-8) when he becomes human, but that does not make him less than the Father.
The only distinction is between humanity and deity, not between God and God.
Jesus, John, Paul, and the writer of Hebrews say otherwise:
First, in verse 5, Paul dismisses the idea of any other actual god or lord, supporting the monotheism he had just stated in verse 4:
1Co 8:4 Therefore, as to the eating of food offered to idols, we know that “an idol has no real existence,” and that “there is no God but one.”
1Co 8:5 For although there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords”—
1Co 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist. (ESV)
Second, notice that at the end of verse 4, Paul says "there is no God but one." That is, at least in part, from Deut 6:4:
Deu 6:4 “Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one. (ESV)
Third, now look at what Paul writes in verse 6: "there is one God, the Father . . . and one Lord, Jesus Christ." Note that verse 6 is a continuing argument from verse 4. Putting the argument together then, without the aside in verse 5, we see: "we know . . . that there is no God but one
yet for us there is
one God, the Father . . . and
one Lord, Jesus Christ." This strongly suggests that Paul was expanding on the Shema.
Fourth,
if a person wants the verse to say that "one God, the Father" precludes Jesus from being God,
then it necessarily follows that "one Lord, Jesus Christ" precludes the Father from being Lord. Yet that would contradict what Paul writes in many passages, such as 1 Tim. 6:15. It would also contradict numerous other passages in the NT, such as Luke 10:21.
Fifth,
if "of whom are all things" speaks of the Father's absolute existence and his nature as God,
then it necessarily follows that "by whom are all things" speaks of the Son's absolute existence and nature as God. We
cannot say that in relation to the Father "all things" means absolutely everything that has come into existence but that it means something different in relation to the Son. And this is confirmed in John 1:1-3, Col 1:16-17, and Heb 1:2, 10-12.
So, simple, sound logic leads to the only conclusion that Jesus, or rather the Son, is also God in nature, being of the same substance as the Father and has never not existed. Yet, he clearly is distinct from the Father and is not a separate God.
I have yet to have you or any other anti-Trinitarian provide any sort of rebuttal to those two arguments. Not a single one has even tried; it just gets ignored. If my arguments are wrong, it should be easy to show where.
Col 1:12 giving thanks to
the Father, who has qualified you to share in the inheritance of the saints in light.
Col 1:13
He has delivered us from the domain of darkness and transferred us to the kingdom of
his beloved Son,
Col 1:14
in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.
Col 1:15
He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.
Col 1:16
For by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things were created through him and for him.
Col 1:17 And
he is before all things, and in him all things hold together. (ESV)
Paul clearly states that it is the Son who was the agent of creation, by whom "all things were created" and who "is before all things." If the Son did not preexist for all eternity, then Paul has lied here. The logic is, again, simple. The Son had to be in existence prior to all creation in order to be the agent of all creation.
Heb 1:8 But of the Son he says . . .
...
Heb 1:10 And, “You, Lord, laid the foundation of the earth in the beginning, and the heavens are the work of your hands;
Heb 1:11 they will perish, but you remain; they will all wear out like a garment,
Heb 1:12 like a robe you will roll them up, like a garment they will be changed. But you are the same, and your years will have no end.” (ESV)
But, that is a quote of Psalms 102:25-27:
Psa 102:25 Of old you laid the foundation of the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands.
Psa 102:26 They will perish, but you will remain; they will all wear out like a garment. You will change them like a robe, and they will pass away,
Psa 102:27 but you are the same, and your years have no end. (ESV)
The writer of Hebrews has the Father attributing
to the Son the work of creation by using a passage that speaks of Yahweh. Again, it necessarily follows that the Son had to be in existence prior to all creation.
Note that all of the above fully supports John 1:1-3, 10. It also is worth point out Jesus's name in Revelation:
Rev 19:13 He is clothed in a robe dipped in blood, and the name by which he is called is The Word of God. (ESV)
It is also worth noting that this is John writing, the very one who referred to the Son as the Word in the prologue to his gospel.