And I appreciate the fact that you read my material. However, I
have addressed your question in a more general way.
I argued that all these "conceptual" challenges that come with the Trinitarian position - and one example is how can Jesus be God if His father is also God - are not showstoppers, but rather the
necessary consequence of taking the narrative seriously. Yes, there are "challenges" with the idea of God being one, yet three. But that is where the narrative forces us. If this were not the case, why aren't you (and others) jumping all over the narrative arguments and showing where they are mistaken?
And you, and others, continue to simply ignore them. Very telling indeed.
Absolutely - the Father is "Jesus's God". But I will anticipate your next move - you will try to argue thus:
1. The "Father" that Jesus refers to is indeed "God";
2. Jesus sets Himself apart from that Father by referring to Him as "my God";
3. Therefore Jesus cannot be God.
That wasn't quite what I had in mind. What I am going to say is this:
1 If The Father is Jesus' God, as God Himself, Jesus Himself, the NT, and you agree, the you must forgive me, but I cannot see how the Father can in any way be other that Jesus' superior.
And if He is
superior (as that whole list of 78 passages in John's gospel which I posted awhile back states quite clearly) then by definition Jesus cannot be
equal to Him.
This kind of argument, if indeed this is what you will say, fundamentally begs the very question at issue. Reasoning like this rules out the Trinitarian position off the table even before the narrative evidence is examined.
I'm afraid you're right. But isn't that what we are examining right now?
That is putting the cart before the horse.
It's strange, but that is exactly what I was thinking about your position quite recently.
You seem to be rejecting the superior position the Father holds to everything else. Having made that assumption, then of course, everything else is up for grabs.
Yes, it bends the mind to have a "God" (Jesus) referring to "God" (the Father) as "my God". But why would you necessarily expect that the God of the Universe would be describable in neat conceptual categories? That seems an awfully bold assumption.
The God of the Universe Himself made that neat conceptual categorisation. Jesus agrees with it and supports it fully in several places. The NT writers do the same.
I cannot see any good reason to disagree with them - and that is the reason for my position. There's just too much weight for me to attempt to put to one side.
The correct approach is to take the narrative as the stating point. And, as has been shown (even though one poster still deserves a response from me), we have, as one major element of the narrative, Jesus fulfilling the promise that YHWH would return to Zion and to the temple.
You may not have read the thread Who is God in the Bible. In it I present some of the vast amount of very clear evidence that God's Representatives are permitted to use the YHWH name. Here is the classic and definitive one:
Ex.23. 20 ¶ "Behold, I send an angel before thee to keep thee in the way, and to bring thee into the place which I have prepared.
21 Have regard for him, and obey his voice. Provoke him not, for he will not pardon your transgressions,
for My name is in him.
22 But if thou shalt indeed obey his voice and
do all that I speak, then I will be an enemy unto thine enemies, and an adversary unto thine adversaries.
Very clearly, this is an Angel:
I send an angel before thee
Equally clearly he is God's Representative with complete Divine authority vested in him:
for My name is in him.
He therefore speaks as if he were God Himself:
obey his voice,
do all that I speak - ( even though the words may come out of the angel's mouth, it is as if God Himself is speaking.)
- and forgives transgressions, or not as the case may be:
for he will not pardon your transgressions.
Given all that, and I cannot see how it can be gainsaid, you must admit that God's greatest Representative of all, His Son, is fully entitled to use, and be described by the YHWH name, the name of His Father.
In fact, Php 2 states categorically that God has
given Him 'the name that is above every name'. That may be the YHWH name, and now it is perfectly easy to understand what has happened.
The prophecies which speak of the LORD coming to his temple, are speaking of the Bearer of the Name YHWH coming to the temple. It is not the Bearer's temple - He expressly disclaims that: 'Ye have made MY FATHER'S HOUSE a den of thieves.'
1 ¶ "Behold, I will send My messenger,
[John the Baptist]
and he shall prepare the way before Me.
And the Lord
[this is NOT the name YHWH], whom you seek, shall suddenly come to His [YHWH's] temple, even the Messenger of the covenant
[Jesus], whom ye delight in. Behold, He shall come," saith the LORD
[YHWH] of hosts.
Here are ESV and Message (which in this case I find illuminating):
1 ¶ “Behold, I send my messenger and he will prepare the way before me. And the Lord whom you seek will suddenly come to his temple; and the messenger of the covenant in whom you delight, behold, he is coming, says the LORD of hosts. ESV
1 ¶ "Look! I’m sending my messenger on ahead to clear the way for me. Suddenly, out of the blue, the Leader you’ve been looking for will enter his Temple—yes, the Messenger of the Covenant, the one you’ve been waiting for. Look! He’s on his way!" A Message from the mouth of GOD-of-the-Angel-Armies. MSG
Interesting.
You must undermine this argument for your position to be sustained, but you, and almost all the others, are entirely silent on this matter. Can you explain why?
Consider the argument undermined.