I don't think it is in the hearing of the law brought sin, but rather, that law itself brought the assessment, measurement, and imputation of sin. Without law, sin could not/cannot be assessed, and hence, not imputed because until then, there was no law violated.
This brings up a very interesting and controversial topic: when did law actually become law?
How would you interpret this verse?
[
1Co 15:22 KJV]
22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.
For if, "as in Adam all die", law must have existed from/by Adam. And if existing, then what brought
it into being because it wasn't always present. We are informed that:
[
Gen 2:25 KJV]
25 And they were both naked, the man and his wife,
and were not ashamed.
but then we read:
[
Gen 3:7 KJV]
7 And the eyes of them
both were opened,
and they knew that they [were] naked; and they sewed fig leaves together, and made themselves aprons.
Question: what changed between
Gen 2:25 and
Gen 3:7 to cause that? Answer: law manifested in
Gen 3:6
[
Gen 3:6 KJV]
6 And when the woman saw that the tree [was] good for food, and that it [was] pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired
to make [one] wise, she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat, and gave also unto her husband with her; and he did eat.
The fruit of tree of the knowledge of good and evil, was law - law in concept - the law of law. By its name are we informed that Law provides demarcation (knowledge) between good and evil.
[
Rom 3:20 KJV]
20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law [is]
the knowledge of sin.
and
[
Rom 5:13 KJV]
13 (For until the law sin was in the world:
but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
so, without law, no one would die because of Adam, because there would be no law existing to be violated