I'm like you, I not saying I'm right just that is how I understand it. :neutral
I wish one of our Greek reading people would jump in here and help. I know we have at least one and I think two.
Hebrews 6:4-6 teaches that one can forfeit their salvation, and if it is one who was actually enlightened, thus knowing the full extent of what they are rejecting, then there is nothing left in reserve to reverse their decision and bring them back. Fortunately most people who reject Christ are not enlightened, but ignorant, therefore still salvageable given appropriate witnessing.
Posted earlier
FYI not for argumentation
The Greek word παραπεσόντας you will see that it is a PARTICIPLE not STRICTLY a noun nor strictly a verb. Because it is a participle It has a hybrid, and it has elements of both. The important thing to remember in the usage of the participle is that it is showing a continuous action, and the tense of the verb part of the participle merely described the onset of the action. For example, if the tense of the verb part of the participle is present, then the action began in the present; if the tense of the verb part of the participle is aorist, or past, then the action of the verb part means that the action began at one time in the past, and is presently continuing. That is one reason why the study of Greek participles is difficult for English speakers; we have nothing similar. That is why the ESV says "
then have fallen " notice that it is a past tense statement.
Yours is a correct analysis of the meaning; however it might be better to explain the differences between the cases of nouns, as well as the voices of the verbs, and why they are important.
In this case, the accusative case is the form of the NOUN that tells us "what" or "whom" did or received the action of the verb. The recipient of the action of the verb in the accusative case is always a noun and it is declined, not parsed.
When you mention "subjunctive" it refers to the MOOD of the VERB and it is the the manner we use to express something that is unreal at the present. "If it rains tomorrow..." is an example of a subjunctive because at present it is not raining.
Because the word is a participle it has only tense (aorist) and voice (active). By definition, it cannot have a mood, such as indicative or subjunctive. That is why the ESV says "
then have fallen " notice that it is an active voice.
As to the meaning of the verb, it is a very powerful one:
παραπίπτω parapiptō
fall away; commit apostasy
34.26 παραπίπτω; ἐκπίπτωc; ἀποστρέφομαιb; ἀφίσταμαιb (and 2nd aorist active):
to abandon a former relationship or association, or to dissociate (a type of reversal of beginning to associate)—‘to fall away, to forsake, to turn away.’6 παραπίπτω: παραπεσόντας, πάλιν ἀνακαινίζειν εἰς μετάνοιαν ‘once they fall away, (it is impossible) to bring them back to repent again’
He 6:6. ἐκπίπτωc: τῆς χάριτος ἐξεπέσατε ‘you have turned away from the grace (of God)’
Ga 5:4. Note, however, that the underlying structure of the expression τῆς χάριτος ἐξεπέσατε
really involves ‘turning away from God who has shown grace.’ For another interpretation of ἐκπίπτω in
Ga 5:4, see 90.72. ἀποστρέφομαιb: πολὺ μᾶλλον ἡμεῖς οἱ τὸν ἀπ’ οὐρανῶν ἀποστρεφόμενοι ‘how much less (shall) we (escape) if we turn away from the one (who speaks) from heaven’
He 12:25. ἀφίσταμαιb: ἐν τῷ ἀποστῆναι ἀπὸ θεοῦ ζῶντος ‘that he will turn away from the living God’
He 3:12.
Louw-Nida
That is why the ESV says "
then have fallen " because that explains the degree that they have turned their backs of God, and why it is impossible to renew them to repentance.