I've noticed there seems to be some confusion about whether we're justified before God by our faith or the faith of Christ. The translators of many Bibles took the liberty of changing the words "faith of Jesus Christ" to "faith in Jesus Christ" sometime in the early 19th Century. Even though the Greek confirms this, as I will show later, and was used correctly in other instances, such as the "hand of God" and the "faith of Abraham", the references to the faith of Christ was changed in many translations to faith in Christ. Tyndales, the Great Bible, Young's, and the KJV, all kept it in it's correct form, but most of the new translations adopted this practice of changing the "of" to "in". I submit it greatly affects the truth of what the Word says about how we're justified. I'll post on the Greek translations in a bit, but I'd be interested in hearing your views on this very important point of doctrine.
So, let's look first at some verses that aren't affected by a difference in translations.
We see that Jesus is the author and finisher (or perfecter) of our faith.
Some may wonder why Jesus needs faith to begin with, or if He even has faith of His own, since being justified by the faith of Christ would require that He did.
What does that mean, exactly? From what faith? From whose faith? Keep this in mind because it's critical to how the righteousness of God is revealed. If the righteousness of God is not "revealed" to us, how can we have faith in God?
So, let's look first at some verses that aren't affected by a difference in translations.
We see that Jesus is the author and finisher (or perfecter) of our faith.
Hebrews 12:2 said:Looking unto Jesus the author and finisher of our faith; who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross, despising the shame, and is set down at the right hand of the throne of God.
Some may wonder why Jesus needs faith to begin with, or if He even has faith of His own, since being justified by the faith of Christ would require that He did.
The just shall live by faith...and notice, the righteousness of God is revealed from faith to faith.We see that without faith, it is impossible to please God.
The Father was "well pleased" by the Son.Hebrews 11:6 said:But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.
Matthew 3:17 said:And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.
What does that mean, exactly? From what faith? From whose faith? Keep this in mind because it's critical to how the righteousness of God is revealed. If the righteousness of God is not "revealed" to us, how can we have faith in God?
Jesus is called the Just One.Romans 1:17 said:For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.
Think about this one...I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me. Christ lives in us, do we live by His faith, or the faith we have in Him? Here are the two translations side by side and you decide. If we no longer live to ourselves, but Christ lives in us, how do we live by our faith.God justifies by faith...would that be the faith of the Son or our faith?Acts 22:14 said:And he said, The God of our fathers hath chosen thee, that thou shouldest know his will, and see that Just One, and shouldest hear the voice of his mouth.
Romans 3:30 said:Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith.
Galatians 2:20 said:I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me.Galatians 2:20 (NIV) said:I have been crucified with Christ and I no longer live, but Christ lives in me. The life I live in the body, I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me.