glorydaz said:
You have a contentious spirit....I simply don't feel like beating my head against a brick wall today.
You are being contentious against the Word of God.
glorydaz said:
I will point out that James is speaking to hypocrites who claimed a faith they didn't have.
Wrong, he is speaking about their faith that has not works. He NEVER says they had "no faith". Another inability to read what is written.
glorydaz said:
Read the verse in context, and you'll understand that the offering is what justified Abraham before men.
You must be joking...
I did and have explained in my most previous post, yet again, that Abraham was justified AT THE ALTAR. No men were present. No crowd of people. No audience that Abraham had to wait for to tell the story. My friend, honestly, YOU are ignoring the context here. The Scriptures clearly state that he was justified AT THE ALTAR, and it was GOD who said "NOW I KNOW". Nothing is mentioned about being justified before men.
You can repeat that all day, and I will correct you and lecture you until you admit (or provide a better argument to support your contention) otherwise.
glorydaz said:
You can ignore the Scripture that says Abraham's belief in the promises of God is why he was justified.
Where have I ignored that? The act of justification awaits the visible act, not just a mental thought. Thus, tying Isaac up and taking the knife out WAS THE ACT, not loading his donkey and getting his son out of the house to take a two day walk...
glorydaz said:
Justification is not a process, but sanctification is.
No, you are wrong, because the Bible states THREE different times that Abraham was justified in God's eyes. Romans. Hebrews. James. ALL three claim Abraham was declared righteous/just before God.
While justification and sanctification are not entirely synonymous, they are BOTH processes. We are just in God's eyes AS we obey the commandments. Not just because one day, 20 years ago, we decided to obey the commandments. Note carefully WHEN Abraham was justified in the Genesis 22 event.
In addition, you have not told me the necessity of sanctification. I wait here with baited breath while you try to figure that one out...
glorydaz said:
And you're wrong...Abraham was declared just long before Isaac was even born.
I cited you James 2. He was justified again. The problem is that sola fide only allows a one-time justification. The Bible is not bound by that false doctrine, thus, it can state that man is justified throughout his life as he obeys God...
glorydaz said:
His obedience was a result of his being justified. You can't pick and choose which verses you stand on, Joe. All the Word of God...line upon line. If you leave out one line, you end up with a distorted message.
I am not picking and choosing. Please explain which verse I am leaving out... And I would suggest you heed the ones YOU leave out...
glorydaz said:
Oh, one more point...you say the faith of Jesus wasn't even mentioned in Gen. What is the Gospel? It is the revelation of the righteousness of God through the faith of Christ.
Faith
IN Jesus Christ. If the Gospel was dependent upon the faith OF Jesus Christ, as understood in the 21st century, there is no point in evangelizing or having faith ourselves!!!
That's just silly. You must be able to see that, GD.
I believe that the Douay Rheims and KJV Bibles have "OF" because the meaning was different. Old English is different than today. I believe that the various Protestant and Catholic bibles more correctly render it "IN", as does the Greek, which precedes the 16th century bibles. I say this because the DR also has the word and it cannot be an interpreter foisting sola fide upon the text. I think it is just the way they used the word back then, just as "pray" and "worship".
You have provided precious little to show that it is Jesus FAITH that justifies Abraham. Now, if you say "Jesus WORK", that would be acceptable, in an indirect manner.
glorydaz said:
"Galatians 3:8"
And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.
Here, I see nothing mentioned about Jesus' faith justifying Abraham. I see Jesus work allows that men be justified, but it is in an indirect manner. Jesus opened the gates for men to seek out God with the faith that is a gift. This imperfect seeking of man is "good enough" for God to grant the gift of justifying faith, since the work of Jesus "enables" the Father to view us under the eyes of Grace, not the Law (which would require perfect faith). Our imperfect and immature seeking are considered righteous.
glorydaz said:
The righteousness of God is NOT revealed to us by our faith in Christ, but by the faith of Christ. I'm sure your translation claims the righteousness of God is revealed by our faith in Christ, but that's what this thread is all about, isn't it?
You are going to have to prove by other means than a circular argument, right??? The context of even those verses do not allow this. They undermine the whole point of man repenting and accepting Jesus in the first place...