Hi Rolla, good to see you posting.
Would 1 Peter 2:24 be worded in the past tense because the cross was now in the past?
He paid the price for our transgressions in the past, does that mean it no longer applies to those down through the ages?
1Pe 2:24 who our sins himself
did bear in his body, upon the tree, that to the sins having died, to the righteousness we may live; by whose stripes ye
were healed,
Who is Peter speaking to if not people who were alive after the cross. If it did not apply to them, why would Peter say the
they were healed, applying it to
them, not people before the cross.
Both being written in English as being in the past, "did bear", I admit I haven't looked at the tenses in the Greek. Probably should do that.
Seeing the first is only effective when faith is applied, I suspect that is also true of the second. It seems to me that God has provided everything that we need to be saved and healed.
By the Matthew scripture we can know positively that Isaish 53:5 did include physical healing but not that it applies to us today. However, Peter's words, appear to me, to say just that. I would note though that Peter's words do not tell us when that healing will be manifested. It is rather like our salvation in that we don't actually see with our eyes the kingdom of God that we know we are members of. We have hope based on God's Word, by faith.
Rom_8:24 for in hope we were saved, and hope beheld is not hope; for what any one doth behold, why also doth he hope for it ?
Rom_8:25 and if what we do not behold we hope for, through continuance we expect
it .
Just my take on those scriptures but each of us must be convinced in our own minds what we believe.