Meanwhile, the Greek word translated "grace" is "charis," (pronounced Kare iss) and means "graciousness." It is related to the Greek word for "kindness." A common definition of grace is "unmerited favor."
One reason why irresistible grace was not invented until the seventeenth century is that the dictionary does not allow it.
Sheesh, Vince, any thinking person is going to wonder how a 20th century dictionary even relates to a 17th century term. Also, you totally missed the history behind the term "irresistible grace." The reason the term did not surface until the 1600s was because the Remonstrants had not yet made the protest. I, personally, do not think TULIP is the best teaching tool to get people to understand protestant theology. This does not mean I think TULIP is wrong, but it needs to be accompanied with other teaching so that the history of the terms are understood.
The term "irresistible grace" did not come into being until the very early 17th century because the Remonstrants and not made their protest until the 17th century. The TULIP acrostic was the Calvinist response to the Remonstrants. If the Remonstrants had not made their protest, then how could Calvinists respond in the 16th century?
This is much like your distortion of history with Augustine.
"Grace" does not refer to a "force." It refers to "kindness." When God tells us that the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men, He means that the loving-kindness of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men. Force is not involved.
This totally muddies the waters of the issue of "Irresistible Grace." You are off on a tangent that has nothing to do with "Irresistible Grace." Another way to describe the issue would be to use the terms "insufficient grace" vs "sufficient grace." Of course you view is that Gods grace is insufficient to save man, and that man must make a contribution, or at least agree to God's grace. Of course this does not clear up the issue that you are muddying and spreading misunderstanding.
The issue concerns what is is normally called "prevenient grace." Now people in differing theologies have different views of prevenient grace. In Arminian/Catholic theology, prevenient grace is resistible. In Arminian/Catholic theology, God draws men to Christ, but not sufficiently powerful that men cannot resist. In Calvinist theology, since we see prevenient grace as being regeneration, we see it as powerful, and totally the work of God. God changes the nature of man in regeneration. In Arminian theology, man is dead in his sins, but by a prevenient work of grace, man has his free will restored. In Calvinist theology, since regeneration is the prevenient work of grace, man responds. He always responds. Gods work does not fail.
Let me quote a text. (all texts ASV)
John 6:37 All that which the Father giveth me shall come unto me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
How many that the Father gives will come to Christ.... a few? some? half? a lot? most?
39 And this is the will of him that sent me, that of all that which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day.
40 For this is the will of my Father, that every one that beholdeth the Son, and believeth on him, should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.
Notice the repeated phrase "and I will raise him up on the last day." It is in both these verses. In verse 40, it is clear that the phrase refers to those who believe. Those raised up, have eternal life.
Out of those given by the Father, how many will Christ loose? a few? some? half? a lot? most?
The method of Christ accomplishing this work of grace is found in verse 44.
44 No man can come to me, except the Father that sent me draw him: and I will raise him up in the last day.
First, notice the same term "come." No man can come to Christ. This is the same term found in verses 37, and 39-40. This is a universal also... how many can "come?" a few... some.... half.... a lot? Or "no man"
Then the question is if no man can come to Christ.... how are the people at the end of the verse saved? Notice the same phrase "I will raise him up on the last day" occurs also in verse 44. That same phrase in verse 40 talks about only people of faith. IT speaks of eternal life. So then, in this text, since no man can "come" and those drawn, are drawn to eternal life, and Christ will loose none of them, then how can we say that Gods grace in drawing men is insuffucient to bring them to salvation? How can we say that God's grace is resistible.
Ephesians 2:8-9 tells Christians that it is by God's unmerited favor they are saved through faith. The passage goes on to explain that their salvation is not the result of good works, so they have nothing to boast about. Nothing is said about force.
Have you ever heard the phrase "non-sequitur?" "Force" is not the issue of irresistible grace. The issue is sufficiency. Is Gods grace sufficient in and of itself? Or does man have to add something? What you are arguing for is the
insufficiency of Christs redemptive shed blood.
In Ehesians 2:8, irresistable grace can be seen in the grammar. The word "work" is neuter in greek. A neuter must take another neuter as anticedent. Since there is no neuter, the phrase "by grace you are saved through faith" is the anticedent. So then, faith is a part of Gods grace. It is not a human work, or of human merit. It is actually your theology that preaches mans meritorious works in faith. And that is a violation of the grammar of verse 8.