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Question about Bible Version....

Louis J

Member
Hello, and thank you in advance to anyone who can help.

I am currently reading the New International Version in conjunction with the King James Version of the Bible. The reason why I like the New Internation Version is because it puts the verses in a more modern English. The reason I dislike the New Internation Version is because it changes "....man" and "brothers" to things like "someone" and "brothers and sisters". I'd prefer a translation that modernized the text, without making it more "pc". Does anyone know a version that, while modernizing the text, remains more true to the verses?
 
Do you admit the NIV has deleted many verses? Does your Bible have the Apocrypha? It’s pretty hypocritical to ask me that question if your NIV is missing it. The one finger you point at me has four pointing back at you.
I've already pointed out that this argument of yours is irrational and clearly stated my position. If you can't even understand that much... But, I'll state the issue again:

You are the one claiming the NIV removed verses and cannot be trusted, yet ignore that the KJV removed whole books. My position is consistent--that those verses (and those books) shouldn't have been in the KJV in the first place--yours is contradictory.

Why are you continuing to refuse to answer my questions?
 
I've already pointed out that this argument of yours is irrational and clearly stated my position.
No you haven’t. You merely said so, you provided no basis for the attack.
If you can't even understand that much... But, I'll state the issue again:
Again, the personal attack. You do this frequently.
You are the one claiming the NIV removed verses and cannot be trusted, yet ignore that the KJV removed whole books.
When did I say it cannot be trusted?
My position is consistent--that those verses (and those books) shouldn't have been in the KJV in the first place--yours is contradictory.
What’s the basis for this position? The removed verses are mentioned in letters from church fathers and were in the original. The removal of them makes the Bible nonsensical at places.
Why are you continuing to refuse to answer my questions?
You try to direct the discussion refusing to answer my questions.

Your personal attacks demonstrate the lack of power to render understanding and grace in your NIV. It is powerless to change a man and many times the missing verses make no sense.
 
No you haven’t. You merely said so, you provided no basis for the attack.

Again, the personal attack. You do this frequently.
There was no personal attack. Your argument is illogical, irrational, unreasonable; take your pick. Those are terms which mean that there is a problem, a contradiction, or a fallacy in your reasoning. I have now twice shown that this is the case. There is a problem with that argument, just as there is a fallacy in claiming that the NIV removed verses.

When did I say it cannot be trusted?
So, you think the NIV can be trusted? Then why do you speak so much against it? Is a translation that supposedly removes references to the deity of Christ (which you have never shown) to be trusted? I sure wouldn't trust a translation that removed references to the deity of Christ, like the NWT.

What’s the basis for this position?
As I have posted before:

'However, for the New Testament, the only Greek text available to the translators of the 1611 edition was based on late manuscripts, which had accumulated the mistakes of over a thousand years of copying. Few of these mistakes — and we must note that there are many of them — make any difference to us doctrinally, but they often do make a difference in the meaning of certain specific texts. Recognizing that the English of the KJV was no longer a living language — and thoroughly dissatisfied with its modern revision (RSV/NRSV) — it was decided by some to “update” the KJV by ridding it of its “archaic” way of speaking. But in so doing, the NKJV revisers eliminated the best feature of the KJV (its marvelous expression of the English language) and kept the worst (its flawed Greek text). This is why for study you should use almost any modern translation other than the KJV or the NKJV.' (Fee, Gordon D.; Stuart, Douglas. How to Read the Bible for All Its Worth (pp. 43-44). Zondervan Academic. Kindle Edition.)

The removed verses are mentioned in letters from church fathers and were in the original.
Which verses and where do the church fathers mention them? The whole point is that they likely weren't in the original autographs.

The removal of them makes the Bible nonsensical at places.
I have yet to see one place where any make the Bible nonsensical.

You try to direct the discussion refusing to answer my questions.
On the contrary, it is you that has thus far refused to answer my questions by continually bringing up other topics or diverting with claims "personal attacks" and such. I have, as far as I am aware, answered all yours.

Your personal attacks demonstrate the lack of power to render understanding and grace in your NIV. It is powerless to change a man and many times the missing verses make no sense.
Again, I have not personally attacked you. The NIV lacks "power to render understanding and grace"? That really is the language of someone who doesn't trust the NIV.
 
These things were written that we can read it and understand the truth and believe. No one writing the scripture thought only the highly educated can understand it. It’s actually the opposite that is true. The Bible says He reveals matter to babes, hiding from the wise and intelligent.

You didn't answer my questions.
 
There was no personal attack. Your argument is illogical, irrational, unreasonable; take your pick. Those are terms which mean that there is a problem, a contradiction, or a fallacy in your reasoning. I have now twice shown that this is the case. There is a problem with that argument, just as there is a fallacy in claiming that the NIV removed verses.
You are likely blind to your own behavior towards others and I have seen this before. First you say there was no personal attack and the very next sentence is a personal attack. You do not prove any of the charges but simply say my position is illogical and irrational. I can choose which insulting adjective. You do not prove that this is so, but merely resort to insulting adjectives. I have seen this is your writings before. You simply personally attack those who disagree with you. You have not shown any fallacy but merely state it is there. You are also unaware that the NIV removed many verses that would have made the passage understandable or giving important information to the believer.
So, you think the NIV can be trusted? Then why do you speak so much against it? Is a translation that supposedly removes references to the deity of Christ (which you have never shown) to be trusted? I sure wouldn't trust a translation that removed references to the deity of Christ, like the NWT.

My feelings (trusting or not) are not to be discussed. W
As I have posted before:

'However, for the New Testament, the only Greek text available to the translators of the 1611 edition was based on late manuscripts, which had accumulated the mistakes of over a thousand years of copying. Few of these mistakes — and we must note that there are many of them — make any difference to us doctrinally, but they often do make a difference in the meaning of certain specific texts. Recognizing that the English of the KJV was no longer a living language — and thoroughly dissatisfied with its modern revision (RSV/NRSV) — it was decided by some to “update” the KJV by ridding it of its “archaic” way of speaking. But in so doing, the NKJV revisers eliminated the best feature of the KJV (its marvelous expression of the English language) and kept the worst (its flawed Greek text). This is why for study you should use almost any modern translation other than the KJV or the NKJV.' (Fee, Gordon D.; Stuart, Douglas. How to Read the Bible for All Its Worth (pp. 43-44). Zondervan Academic. Kindle Edition.)
The oldest manuscripts are not necessarily the best. The corrupting of the Word of God was already begun in the early church. "For we are not as many, which corrupt the word of God:" There is no evidence that "mistakes" were accumulated over thousand of years of copying other what punctuation. There is actually only the received text, not 1000s of years of copying. Again, if one looks at these "mistakes" eliminated in the NIV they are clear evidence of the goal of those editing them out.
Which verses and where do the church fathers mention them? The whole point is that they likely weren't in the original autographs.
So you do not believe that christians quoted the scriptures and do not care if they did. Their quotes show that they were in the original writings. What you offer is no evidence of the original writings since we do not have them. The verses missing were in the originals and were quoted by others.
I have yet to see one place where any make the Bible nonsensical.
Rev 22
KJV Blessed are those who do His commandments, that they may have the right to the tree of life, and may enter through the gates into the city.

NIV Blessed are those who wash their robes, that they may have the right to the tree of life and may go through the gates into the city.

In the NIV they used the right soap, I guess. It makes no sense that those who wash their robes have the right to the tree of life. There are more examples.
On the contrary, it is you that has thus far refused to answer my questions by continually bringing up other topics or diverting with claims "personal attacks" and such. I have, as far as I am aware, answered all yours.


Again, I have not personally attacked you. The NIV lacks "power to render understanding and grace"? That really is the language of someone who doesn't trust the NIV.
You personally attack others and I have noticed this before but you are unaware of this. Again, in the above last sentence you attack me personally by saying I do not trust. This is me personally, not my argument.
 
I said in the beginning that the NIV so distorts the scripture that it’s difficult to come to understand God and His ways if that’s what you read. The Catholic additional books play no role in that whatsoever.

You still refuse to answer Free's valid question as to why you accept the KJV and reject the KJV's Apocrypha.

Oz
 
You are likely blind to your own behavior towards others and I have seen this before. First you say there was no personal attack and the very next sentence is a personal attack.
It is not a personal attack to point out that a person's argument is fallacious or illogical.

You do not prove any of the charges but simply say my position is illogical and irrational.
I did prove it and I cannot figure out how you cannot understand the simple logic of it.

You have not shown any fallacy but merely state it is there.
I have shown it, twice, and even pointed out once already that I have shown it twice.

You are also unaware that the NIV removed many verses that would have made the passage understandable or giving important information to the believer.
Again, as I have stated numerous times, this is the fallacy of begging the question. You being with the assumption (a premise) that the verses are supposed to be there to begin with and then conclude that the verses are supposed to be there and are missing from the NIV. You have not at all shown or proven that those verses are supposed to be there in the first place, that they were most likely in the original autographs.

My feelings (trusting or not) are not to be discussed.
Why not? If you do trust the NIV, then why do you keep insisting that 1) it is has removed verses speaking of the deity of Christ, and 2) added words or missing words that change the meaning of the text? That language you use points only to mistrust of the NIV. If you would just answer the simple questions put to you, as is a part of normal discourse and debate, this would be much easier for everyone.

The oldest manuscripts are not necessarily the best. The corrupting of the Word of God was already begun in the early church.
And, so, newer manuscripts are somehow better? This is not a good argument at all. If you want to argue that because "corrupting of the Word of God was already begun in the early church," that "The oldest manuscripts are not necessarily the best," then that means the newer manuscripts must still be worse than the earlier manuscripts. If they started out being corrupted, they cannot get better over time.

There is no evidence that "mistakes" were accumulated over thousand of years of copying other what punctuation.
That is your opinion, provided without proof, over against the opinion of experts which I quoted.

There is actually only the received text, not 1000s of years of copying.
Yes, 1000's of years of copying. The RT is based on relatively scant manuscript evidence (as compared to the amount of manuscript evidence we now have), which is from 1000's of years of copying. The RT is not some sort of single copy of the original autographs.

Again, if one looks at these "mistakes" eliminated in the NIV they are clear evidence of the goal of those editing them out.
And, yet, again, this is your opinion for which you have provided no evidence.

So you do not believe that christians quoted the scriptures and do not care if they did.
No, that is not at all what I said. I don't even know how you could come to that conclusion when all I asked was, "Which verses and where do the church fathers mention them?".

Their quotes show that they were in the original writings. What you offer is no evidence of the original writings since we do not have them. The verses missing were in the originals and were quoted by others.
I asked for evidence of this and you avoided answering, again, preferring to personally attack instead. Why is that? Why have you continually ignored questions being asked of you to support your position?

Rev 22
KJV Blessed are those who do His commandments, that they may have the right to the tree of life, and may enter through the gates into the city.

NIV Blessed are those who wash their robes, that they may have the right to the tree of life and may go through the gates into the city.

In the NIV they used the right soap, I guess. It makes no sense that those who wash their robes have the right to the tree of life. There are more examples.
It makes no sense? Perhaps you should do a little more study in Revelation:

Rev 7:13 And one of the elders answered, saying unto me, What are these which are arrayed in white robes? and whence came they?
Rev 7:14 And I said unto him, Sir, thou knowest. And he said to me, These are they which came out of great tribulation, and have washed their robes, and made them white in the blood of the Lamb.
Rev 7:15 Therefore are they before the throne of God, and serve him day and night in his temple: and he that sitteth on the throne shall dwell among them.
Rev 7:16 They shall hunger no more, neither thirst any more; neither shall the sun light on them, nor any heat.
Rev 7:17 For the Lamb which is in the midst of the throne shall feed them, and shall lead them unto living fountains of waters: and God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes. (KJV)

Rev 22:14 "Blessed are those who wash their robes, that they may have the right to the tree of life and may go through the gates into the city.(NIV)

And here is from M. R. Vincent's Word Studies in the New Testament:

That do His commandments (οἱ ποιοῦντες τὰς ἐντολὰς αὐτοῦ)

Read οἱ πλύνοντες τὰς στολὰς αὐτῶν they that wash their robes. Compare Rev 7:14.

So, not only is an expert in Greek is saying that the translation should be exactly as the NIV has it, it is quite easy to see that Rev 22:14 is perfectly consistent with Rev 7:14 in the NIV.

You personally attack others and I have noticed this before but you are unaware of this. Again, in the above last sentence you attack me personally by saying I do not trust. This is me personally, not my argument.
Perhaps you should treat others how you want to be treated and not say that someone doesn't care if Christians quoted Scripture.
 
He didn’t answer if the apocrypha is in his NIV. He needs to answer that first or its hypocritical. If it’s not in his Bible, why does it have to be in mine?
I have answered it, twice, and this is the third time having to point out that I have answered it twice.

You are the one claiming the NIV removed verses, yet ignore that the KJV removed whole books. My position is consistent--that those verses (and those books) shouldn't have been in the KJV in the first place--yours is contradictory.

That is the third time posting my position, so what is it that you do not understand? The obvious conclusion is that the Apocrypha isn't in the NIV. So, how about answering the questions I have asked of you several times now:

Do you believe the KJV itself is inspired? Do you accept the Apocrypha? It was included in the 1611 KJV, so if you don't accept it, why not?
 
I just read that this is not a debate forum so I am respecting that and apologizing for debating this subject on this forum. The debate is over.
How about we start a thread in Theology and continue there? I can even move most of this thread so we can just continue on without starting over. Sound like a plan?
 
Oz, The NIv radically changes the meaning away from the original.

The fundamental problem with a translator giving himself the freedom to change the words to match WHAT HE THINKS instead of what was written is this. Those translations true to the words do not assume their personal theology is 100% in scripture and they personally fully understand every verse. Those who
chose there own personal position change what was written.

And if the scripture has a double meaning not caught by the translator, it will entirely lost.

It was rather depressing to find the depth of false understanding of God in the NIV. Reminded of the Sunday a man read of the Passion or the Message and it became crystal clear that that author neither loves God not even knows Him. It is more likely the author despises Him.

And next time I’ll write “ancient language” so you have to engage instead of insult me.

What is clear is you and Free cannot discuss the particulars. Ad hominem is your only response.
That’s the theory although the Bible never promises reading it will help you get to know God. That’s not what it says about itself.

Do you admit the NIV has deleted many verses? Does your Bible have the Apocrypha? It’s pretty hypocritical to ask me that question if your NIV is missing it. The one finger you point at me has four pointing back at you.
 
How about we start a thread in Theology and continue there? I can even move most of this thread so we can just continue on without starting over. Sound like a plan?

Free,

I think we are just spinning the wheels and going nowhere. What would be the purpose in starting a new thread? Surely our superfluous matter has already been stated!

Oz
 
Dorothy,

I have a PhD in NT. I'm way down the road to exploring the NT.

Oz
With all respect due your education, your posts do not reflect that. Free brings up the Apocrypha and you jump on that like a dog on a June bug unable to see the hypocrisy in asking me about that knowing full well It is not in your Bible. I would not have guess a PhD educated man would respond that way.

What you have not begun to explore is how much I know and it is a lot more than we have begun to discuss. But I am not sure you and Free can actually think about this matter. The questions Free asks are of a more ad hominem nature, like do I trust, which has nothing whatsoever to do with an intellectual discussion. Can you imagine a discussion on Bibles at a university event and one professor ask the other if he personally trusts?

The battle in the matter of the Bibles has historical roots. And even if these are not taken seriously, although a PhD ought to be able to do so, The kind of verses missing in the newer works are suspect. The missing verses alone tell a story even if the history is doubted. This is something I doubt you two are ready to deal with.
 
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