Jethro Bodine
Member
- Oct 31, 2011
- 23,344
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No, lol.And all the points you make are verb points.
So the Reformation did not happen in the first century.
You're literally arguing with scripture. It did happen in the 1st century.
Hebrews 9:10 talks about the time of reform from the external regulations of the old covenant to the realities of the New. That same kind of time of reform occurred in the 15th century after the Catholic church mislead the masses back to the external regulations of works justification. And so another time of reform from works justification to faith justification had to occur. And it did, thank God.