salvation

[Jethro Bodine]

It's used by all the Orthodox churches. (Greek, Russian, Romanian, Armenian, Antiochan, etc.)
The word "Greek" just tells us that the particular Orthodox church is attended primarily by Greeks and the services are probably i Greek and reflect the culture of Greece. The word "Orthodox" refers to the doctrines accepted by all Eastern Orthodox churches.

iakov the fool

Have you made your pilgrimage to Tarpon Springs, Florida yet?

 

[Jim Parker]

Have you made your pilgrimage to Tarpon Springs, Florida yet?

No, I'm not Greek.
I prefer the Russian flavor.
I have been to Moscow. (MOCKBA)

iakov the fool

 

[Jethro Bodine]

No, I'm not Greek.
I prefer the Russian flavor.
I have been to Moscow. (MOCKBA)

iakov the fool

Are there no predominantly Russian Orthodox cities in the United States?

 

[Jim Parker]

Are there no predominantly Russian Orthodox cities in the United States?

You can't get any more Russian than Moscow.
But to get more Russian Orthodox, you go to a RO monastery anywhere on the planet. (Or any other planet...)

 

[Winnie]

hello OzSpen, dirtfarmer here

James 1:1 " James a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting."

Romans 11 16+. Talks about the gentiles being grafted in.

In case some forgot, there was more of a conversation back there about dirtfarmer thinking the book of James only applied to the Jews.

 

[dirtfarmer]

Romans 11 16+. Talks about the gentiles being grafted in.

In case some forgot, there was more of a conversation back there about dirtfarmer thinking the book of James only applied to the Jews.

hello Winnie, dirtfarmer here

What I state is that you cannot taken doctrine for the church from James. There are principles for the believer that can be established from the book of James. Like James 3:11-12: " Doth a fountain send forth at the same place sweet water and bitter? Can a fig tree, my brethren, bear olives berries? either a vine, figs? so can no fountain both yield salt water and fresh."

In verse 17 of Romans 11 it is not stated that all the branches were broken off, but "some of the branches". There is a remnant of the original "olive tree" that is still attached to the root. From those that are still part of the root, the 144,000 that are left to enter the earthly kingdom, is the "all Israel shall be saved" in verse 26. James 1:1 states; "

The twelve tribes which are scattered abroad," and through out James, you find reference to, " My beloved brethren, or my brethren. James was one of the apostles to the circumcision according to Galatians 2:7-9.

 

[Winnie]

hello Winnie, dirtfarmer here

What I state is that you cannot taken doctrine for the church from James. There are principles for the believer that can be established from the book of James. Like James 3:11-12: " Doth a fountain send forth at the same place sweet water and bitter? Can a fig tree, my brethren, bear olives berries? either a vine, figs? so can no fountain both yield salt water and fresh."

In verse 17 of Romans 11 it is not stated that all the branches were broken off, but "some of the branches". There is a remnant of the original "olive tree" that is still attached to the root. From those that are still part of the root, the 144,000 that are left to enter the earthly kingdom, is the "all Israel shall be saved" in verse 26. James 1:1 states; "

The twelve tribes which are scattered abroad," and through out James, you find reference to, " My beloved brethren, or my brethren. James was one of the apostles to the circumcision according to Galatians 2:7-9.

Apparently I am missing the point. Or you are. One or the other.
It appeared that you were saying the book of James could not apply to gentiles.
If it were written to CHRISTIAN Jews, how could God/Christ apply different commands to CHRISTIAN Gentiles? Or should I say, nullify certain commands to CHRISTIAN Gentiles?
'for there is neither Greek nor Jew, slave nor free, male nor female, but Christ is all, and in all.' ( I don't know where it is at the moment for complete accuracy, but we know what scripture I am referring to.)
a God of all truth, who has to SAME Spirit abiding in us, does not differentiate. That would be partiality. But not only that, it would be sin! If we know these truths by reading James, we now have a truth revealed to us, and going against that truth is sin! God clearly says He shows no partiality. 'for there is no partiality with God.' Romans.
So as in James, Jews cannot show partiality to the Rich man who comes into there assembly, but Gentile can? Or only Jews must be quick to hear, slow to speak and slow to anger? Well, I assume you get my drift.
Even in the Old Testament, the same laws applied to the aliens among them. God said that several times. (Except for a few regarding the temple, because that would be defiling the temple, in which Christ has taken away and nailed it to cross).

 

[dirtfarmer]

Apparently I am missing the point. Or you are. One or the other.
It appeared that you were saying the book of James could not apply to gentiles.
If it were written to CHRISTIAN Jews, how could God/Christ apply different commands to CHRISTIAN Gentiles? Or should I say, nullify certain commands to CHRISTIAN Gentiles?
'for there is neither Greek nor Jew, slave nor free, male nor female, but Christ is all, and in all.' ( I don't know where it is at the moment for complete accuracy, but we know what scripture I am referring to.)
a God of all truth, who has to SAME Spirit abiding in us, does not differentiate. That would be partiality. But not only that, it would be sin! If we know these truths by reading James, we now have a truth revealed to us, and going against that truth is sin! God clearly says He shows no partiality. 'for there is no partiality with God.' Romans.
So as in James, Jews cannot show partiality to the Rich man who comes into there assembly, but Gentile can? Or only Jews must be quick to hear, slow to speak and slow to anger? Well, I assume you get my drift.
Even in the Old Testament, the same laws applied to the aliens among them. God said that several times. (Except for a few regarding the temple, because that would be defiling the temple, in which Christ has taken away and nailed it to cross).

hello Winnie, dirtfarmer here

Your scripture reference is in Galatians 3:24-29. Do you believe the "replacement theology"? Has the Church replaced the Israelites as God's chosen people, or is the Church the bride of Christ, and not the earthly kingdom? You will probably state that I am a heretic, but God has already taken Israel as his bride and given her a "bill of divorcement", Jeremiah 3:8, but will sometime in the future be reconciled.

In the first verse of James We can learn from James but we can't find church doctrine in it. We find the phrases, "my beloved brethren, my brethren" through out the book of James. Are we, the Church, brethren or heirs and joint-heirs with Jesus Christ: Romans 8:17 & Galatians 4:7.

To whom does James state that he is writing to? James 1:1 " To the twelve tribes scattered abroad": do you belong to one of the twelve tribes of Israel? Do you believe that the promise of an earthly kingdom that was given by God to Israel has been fulfilled, or do you even believe that there is to be a future kingdom established on earth?



After the Church( the bride of Christ) is taken out and the marriage of the bridegroom and bride has happened, there will be a 7 year "marriage supper" in heaven and 7 year tribulation on earth. During that tribulation on earth there will be 144,000 Israelites, 12,000 from each tribe, that will be sealed and they will be the ones that will fulfill what is stated in Matthew 28:19-20.

 

[Jim Parker]

It appeared that you were saying the book of James could not apply to gentiles.

You are correct. If it actually did (and it does) then "faith without works is dead" and "a man is justified by works and not faith alone" (James 2) would demolish DF's house of cards.

(Edited by staff)

 

[dirtfarmer]

You are correct. If it actually did (and it does) then "faith without works is dead" and "a man is justified by works and not faith alone" (James 2) would demolish DF's house of cards.

(Edited by staff)

hello Jim Parker, dirtfarmer here

1 Samuel 16:7, " But the LORD said unto Samuel, Look not on his countenance, or the height of his stature; because I have refused him: The Lord seeth not as man seeth: for man looketh on the outward appearance, but the LORD looketh on the heart."

To whom is James referring to when he said in James 2:24, "Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only." I don't think " ye see" is in reference to God, but to man, since man doesn't have the ability to look on a man's heart.