- Apr 2, 2003
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Because there isn’t one, as I stated.I AM not seeing the problem
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Because there isn’t one, as I stated.I AM not seeing the problem
How does that relate?I am what I am and that's all that I am
no he was saying he existed long before Abraham was born. Other scriptures prove that to be true that Jesus existed. he being the first thing that God made to happenIt’s Jesus’s claim to be God. There is nothing wrong with that.
That does not do justice to the context. He didn’t say “I was,” he said “I Am.” And he said “before Abraham was”—he is contrasting Abraham’s temporary existence with his own timeless existence.no he was saying he existed long before Abraham was born.
No scripture shows that Jesus was “the first thing that God made to happen.” Just as John 8:58 shows, there are verses that show he has always existed, as the Son.Other scriptures prove that to be true that Jesus existed. he being the first thing that God made to happen
before my younger brother was born I AMThat does not do justice to the context. He didn’t say “I was,” he said “I Am.” And he said “before Abraham was”—he is contrasting Abraham’s temporary existence with his own timeless existence.
That also would not explain why the Jews picked up stones to stone him, which was the penalty for blasphemy.
No scripture shows that Jesus was “the first thing that God made to happen.” Just as John 8:58 shows, there are verses that show he has always existed, as the Son.
Be careful with proof-texting and ignoring context.
You first have to show that this is referring to the Son, which I don’t believe to be the case. It is a personification of wisdom.Proverbs 8:22 nbsp;The Lord possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old.
23 I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was.
24 When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water.
25 Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth:
No. That is grammatical nonsense in English and doesn’t understand the Greek grammar. “Am” is timelessness, it is absolute self-existence, and is from Ex. 3:14.before my younger brother was born I AM
I assure you, i amNo. That is grammatical nonsense in English and doesn’t understand the Greek grammar. “Am” is timelessness, it is absolute self-existence, and is from Ex. 3:14.
No, you’re not.I assure you, i am
I am to I am right hereNo, you’re not.
I assure you, i am
I am to I am right here
Except the Greek is only “I Am.”NLV
Jesus said to them, “For sure, I tell you, before Abraham was born, I was and am and always will be!”
Butchers the context and ignores Greek grammar.TLB
Jesus: “The absolute truth is that I was in existence before Abraham was ever born!”
This could also be considered blasphemous.I am to I am right here
trolling .I had to look it up Trolling is the act of posting or commenting online to intentionally upset others.Locust, what you "are" is incessantly trolling, and there are rules against that in the ToS.
I did a reasonably complete browse of this thread and decided to make a few comments without getting too involved. I understand John 17:5 as an allusion to Psalm 8:5-6. Jesus is speaking about the future glory prophesied that he would have in fulfillment of the New Creation, and this was in prospect before the creation, or as Jesus states "before the world was".I have a friend that is a Biblical Unitarian he believes Jesus did not exist before he was born on Earth, which I think is totally ridiculous, and I mention John 17:5 and other scriptures and he says these words don't apply or they have a different meaning, then he gives me two or three paragraphs of explanation in his own words to explain things.
I do not usually use the title "Biblical Unitarian", but firstly it is used to distinguish from the traditional "Unitarians" who did not necessarily endorse some aspects of the Bible. Yes, I believe the Bible teaches Unitarianism."Biblical Unitarian" is an oxymoron.
Jesus said to them, “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.”
Then they took up stones to throw at Him; but Jesus hid Himself and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by. John 8:58-59
Why do you believe the Jews picked up stones to throw at Him when He said I AM?
This has been discussed on a number of occasions. I consider that John 8:58 should be translated as "I am he", the same as John 8:24,28 and is part of the theme of whether or not Jesus is the Christ, Also Exodus 3:14 should be translated as "I will be" as per Tyndale and the RV and RSV margins.It’s Jesus’s claim to be God. There is nothing wrong with that.
if I may ask ,have you ever said ''i am sorry ''?This could also be considered blasphemous.