If Christ didn't taste death for those spoken of in Hebrews 6 in what sense is Paul stating its not possible for Christ to be crucified again? As in tasting death a 2nd time.
Tasted Death for every Man !
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Those whom Christ tasted death for, He saved them from sin, from unbelief, from rejecting Him and brings them to Glory Heb 2:9-10
Those Christ tasted death for He brings them Glory Heb 2:9-10 if someone goes to hell, He didnt taste death from them, because Christ death saves from sin and hell, you dont believe that ? Then you in unbelief
That didn't address the question. If they came to repentance, shared in the Holy Spirit and tasted the good things to come, however brief that was by belief. At that point Christ tasted death for them. When they turned their backs and trampled on that salvation it was not possible for Christ to be crucified AGAIN. As in taste death a 2nd time. If Christ did not taste death for them at all in what sense is it not possible for Christ to be crucified AGAIN? As in taste death again.
Yes it does, and its a rabbit trail, them Christ tasted death for are brought to Glory Heb 2:9-10
False, every man of them, every man He tasted death for He brings to Glory. You under estimate and dont know the power of Christs Death, people who reject Him, as all do by nature, yet He is able to change them He died for, He can abase and subdue the most proudest sinner Dan 4:37
37 Now I Nebuchadnezzar praise and extol and honour the King of heaven, all whose works are truth, and his ways judgment: and those that walk in pride he is able to abase.
Phil 3:21
21 Who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself.
So a sinner rejecting Him and in rebellion against Him is no obstacle that prevent Him from saving them and bringing them to Glory, and they will praise Him for it.
You have no faith in the True Christ
S
See you teach and believe creature sinfulness, and rebellion is mightier than Grace, that those enemies reign over Grace, yet scripture teaches that the Grace of God reigns over those things by the Righteousness of Christ, effected by His death, His death is by the Grace of God Heb 2:9
9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
Now Grace reigns through Righteousness Rom 5:21
21 That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.
See how Grace reigns unto eternal life ? Thats why all for whom Christ tasted death for, by the Grace of God, He brings them to Glory, Eternal Life,
Yet you have sin and death and rebellion defeating Grace that saves through Jesus Christ, thats unbelief
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Indeed, it was very edifying, however, not everyone has ears to hear that it might find a place within them.
brightfame52, to substantiate your (above) post, I think the following verse is significant and worth noting - that Jesus Christ solely "by Himself" and alone, "purged our sins" with no further contribution permitted nor possible from those whose sins He purged for their sins to be purged: after purging, for them, sin cannot exist in any form whatsoever, and thereby, God is no longer mindful of their sin. With purging fully completed, Christ was therefore able to sit on the right hand of God the Father because nothing remained in that regard to be done. Otherwise, should it instead have required further actions by those whose sins were purged, then that would be in direct contradiction and conflict to that verse making it untrue and incorrect, but of course we know that everything in the Bible is perfectly and precisely true and correct, so we know that forgiveness in its fullness for those to whom it applied, had then been successfully completed by Christ.
[Heb 1:3 KJV] 3 Who being the brightness of [his] glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
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Yes, and to them shall be sent the Gospel declaring unto them the forgiveness of sins because its accomplished for them, and they will receive it consciously by God given Faith Acts 13:37-38
37 But he, whom God raised again, saw no corruption.
38 Be it known unto you therefore, men and brethren, that through this man is preached unto you the forgiveness of sins:
It was offered to me, and I accepted it with all its associated gifts.
"Faith cometh by hearing...". (Rom 10:17)
Faith cannot be forced on anyone.
More on who Christ tasted death for from the context of Heb 2:9
9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
Does this statement mean that Christ died for those who suffer the wrath of God in hell? No!
That would be attesting that there are some for whom Christ shed His blood in vain and would be a denial of the efficacy of His Atoning Death!
What, then, is the meaning of the words ? ‘That he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.’ Tasting Death Christ died not merely as a good example, or merely for the good of men, but as a Surety, in the room and place of men. However, the word ‘man’ was added by our translators with no apparent reason, except to make the sentence read more easily. In the Greek text there is no word in this verse that should be translated ‘man’. The sentence literally should be translated, ‘That he by the grace of God should taste death for every’, or ‘for all’, or ‘for every one’. And the context makes it obviously clear that the Apostle was speaking of definite people. Our Lord Jesus Christ, by the grace of God, tasted death for every one of the sons He would bring to glory (v. 10), for every one of the brethren He is not ashamed to own (v. 11), for every member of the church, in the midst of which He will sing praise (v. 12), for every one of the children God the Father had given Him to save, for whose sake He assumed flesh and blood (v. 13), for every one of Abraham’s seed, God’s elect, whom He took hold of to save (v. 16) for all of the specific people (v 18)
9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
Does this statement mean that Christ died for those who suffer the wrath of God in hell? No!
That would be attesting that there are some for whom Christ shed His blood in vain and would be a denial of the efficacy of His Atoning Death!
What, then, is the meaning of the words ? ‘That he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.’ Tasting Death Christ died not merely as a good example, or merely for the good of men, but as a Surety, in the room and place of men. However, the word ‘man’ was added by our translators with no apparent reason, except to make the sentence read more easily. In the Greek text there is no word in this verse that should be translated ‘man’. The sentence literally should be translated, ‘That he by the grace of God should taste death for every’, or ‘for all’, or ‘for every one’. And the context makes it obviously clear that the Apostle was speaking of definite people. Our Lord Jesus Christ, by the grace of God, tasted death for every one of the sons He would bring to glory (v. 10), for every one of the brethren He is not ashamed to own (v. 11), for every member of the church, in the midst of which He will sing praise (v. 12), for every one of the children God the Father had given Him to save, for whose sake He assumed flesh and blood (v. 13), for every one of Abraham’s seed, God’s elect, whom He took hold of to save (v. 16) for all of the specific people (v 18)
As was established in this post, the Muslim man who lived in the year 1502 in the middle of the Ottoman Empire never believed in Jesus, so that long dead Muslim man died being a "son of hell" (Matthew 23:15); therefore, when you wrote "I don't see that man's name in scripture on the 'REJECTED' list", then you convey that the long dead unbelieving Muslim man was saved from the wrath of God by Jesus Christ's propitiating advocacy, so you convey that Jesus saves unbelievers; however, Lord Jesus exclusively saves person's whom Jesus exclusively chooses for the King of Glory says "He who believes in Him is not judged; he who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God" and "This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent" (John 6:29); therefore, you call Jesus a deceiver.
Lord Jesus successfully rescues and redeems every man, including me by His grace for His glory, (Hebrews 2:9-10) for whom He executed propitiating advocacy without exception (1 John 2:1-2) as shown in this post; in contrast, your inclusion in "the whole world" of the long dead unbelieving Muslim man of 1502AD results in you preaching that Jesus is a failure per the same post;
All glory and power and honor be to the Holy God forever and ever, The Righteous One alone is salvation, Amen!!!
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The every man in Heb 2:9
9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
Couldn't be all without exception because every man Christ tasted death for or died for, has by that death of His, been freely Justified by Grace because of the redemption that is in His Blood Rom 3:24
24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus[His death]:
Now we know from scripture that all without exception have not been freely Justified by grace, lest one believes in the false teaching of universalism.
9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
Couldn't be all without exception because every man Christ tasted death for or died for, has by that death of His, been freely Justified by Grace because of the redemption that is in His Blood Rom 3:24
24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus[His death]:
Now we know from scripture that all without exception have not been freely Justified by grace, lest one believes in the false teaching of universalism.