wondering, I'm continuing
Earth is to be destroyed and the New Jerusalem will be established to replace this world. Yes, I believe this.
Why would God do this? I mean end this world?
This is a good question and one I haven't thought about.
It would make a good thread.
You can start it or I will.
It would be in THEOLOGY.
(let me know in your reply).
Hmmm have never started/hosted a thread before. Seems like too much responsibility for someone like me,
but I'd bet you'd be good at it
The above is speaking about believers.
But WHEN did Jesus die for us?
WHILE WE WERE YET SINNERS, Christ died for us.
Christ died for sinners...not for saved persons.
God loves everyone created...even sinners, enough to send His only begotten Son to die as the final sacrifice.
God wishes that none should perish...but alas, not everyone will accept His love for them.
I think that to understand Romans 5 8 - 10, we first have to go back to Romans 1 and understand who the audience is Paul was addressing. :
[Rom 1:5-8 KJV]
5
By whom we have received grace and apostleship, for obedience to the faith among all nations, for his name:
Those who have become saved first received grace from God unto faith, not the reverse
6 Among whom are ye also
the called of Jesus Christ:
7 To all that be in Rome,
beloved of God, called [to be] saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ.
8 First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you all, that your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world.
"Christ died for sinners...not for saved persons."
That's what saved(s) them
"God loves everyone created...even sinners, enough to send His only begotten Son to die as the final sacrifice."
Respectfully, I don't think so. Jesus(God) did not pray for the "world", only for those whom the Father gave Him:
[Jhn 17:9 KJV]
9
I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for t
hem which thou hast given me; for they are thine.
"God wishes that none should perish...but alas, not everyone will accept His love for them."
[Rom 9:21 KJV]
21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make
one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
[Rom 9:22-24 KJV]
22 [What] if God, willing to shew [his] wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the
vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
23 And that he
might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which
he had afore prepared unto glory,
24
Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
Question: if everybody/anybody can be saved by their own choice, then how did the names of those to be saved become written into the Lamb's book of life after Christ' offering but before their birth (for those not yet born)?
[
I know a teacher of Greek and reads the bible in Greek and taught it and he told me to forget about trying to understand it for these purposes. The bible was translated correctly by those that DO understand Greek and we can trust how the Greek was translated. I know that a slant can be given to a verse, but this will only happen to one or two versions of the bible and the rest will have the correct translation. If something is very important, I check different versions.
Respectfully, I believe the whole point of aroist tense is that it is used when the translator cannot determine tense. I don't think that should be ignored because it could have very great affect on the verse's interpretation. At the very lease, we should keep in mind that we know that we don't know
God loves everyone created...even sinners, enough to send His only begotten Son to die as the final sacrifice.
God wishes that none should perish...but alas, not everyone will accept His love for them.
[1Ti 2:4-5 KJV]
4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
5 For [there is] one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
[Psa 115:3 KJV] 3 But our God [is] in the heavens: he hath done whatsoever he hath pleased.
So, if God wants someone saved, they will be saved.
I'm familiar with 1 Timothy 4 & 5.
Okay, and this won't be easy to explain, but as I posted previously, we have to keep in mind that, among other things, no verse of scripture is of any private interpretation. God uses many symbols in the Bible which are often defined elsewhere in the Bible. To understand the symbol "man" and "beast", we need to look to see how God put's values to them. Often the Bible uses a symbolic of "man", "men", ETC as a representation of Christians, He also uses "beast" or "beasts" ETC as a representation of the unsaved. Please observe:
[1Co 15:32 KJV] 32 If after the
manner of men I have
fought with beasts at Ephesus, what advantageth it me, if the dead rise not? let us eat and drink; for to morrow we die.
Above, Paul links "men" to Christians, and "beasts" to the the unsaved. We can understand this since "beast" isn't a literal animal as Paul had "fought" them over the issue of whether the dead will rise, the way a Christian would - a spiritual battle, not a physical one.
Further:
[Psa 49:12, 20 KJV]
12 Nevertheless man [being] in honour abideth not:
he is like the beasts [that] perish. ...
20 Man [that is] in honour, and understandeth not,
is like the beasts [that] perish.
So, in Tim 4& 5, by the term "men", we can see that God is informing that all whom He has chosen for salvation, will become saved. Otherwise there would be a contradiction with:
[Eph 1:4 KJV] 4
According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:
We are informed that all who are to become saved were chosen before the foundation of the world. Hence, the question I posed to you about the Lamb's book of life - how can names be written into it before some of the people weren't even born, if God didn't choose them first?