I will address the 3 out of context passages quoted. Two of the three passages are based upon the single word "all." Most people who quote such passages as Narwhalist did assume that the only possible meaning of the word "all" in each passage must be interpreted as "all men everywhere at all times." Of course rarely does the context actually allow for such an understanding of the word "all." Lets us look at a few obvious demonstrations that the word "all" does not always mean each and every person without exception.
2Sa_11:1 And it came to pass, at the return of the year, at the time when kings go out to battle, that David sent Joab, and his servants with him, and all Israel; and they destroyed the children of Ammon, and besieged Rabbah. But David tarried at Jerusalem.
*Was each and every Israelite with Joab at the seige of Rabbah? Every old man, every infant, no one left on the farms, the cities were all empty? Obviously not. David himself did not go. Was he alone in Jerusalem? Obviously the term "all" in this context does not mean each and every person without exception.
*Mat_3:5 Then went out unto him Jerusalem, and all Judaea, and all the region round about the Jordan;
Here the passage uses the word "all" twice. It says all judea, and all the region around Jordan went to see john the baptist. Again, if the reader reads the word all as meaning each and every person without exception, then you have absurdities. That means each infirm person in old age, every infant. Every pregnant mother in child birth. Every sick person. That means Jerusalem, judea, and jordan had not a soul left in them and all were watching John? Obviously not.
The term "all" can be used in several ways.... "all kinds of men" or "all men in a certain place" or "all men everywhere." Only the context can determine the meaning in each context. The error of the person quoting the 3 verses above is that they do not look at the context to determine the meaning of a word.
Now that we know that we cannot assume that the word "all" means "each and every person without exception everywhere at all times" lets look at the context of the 3 verses used above in the post.
Let me first quote the passage and I will bold only the word "all" each time found in the context (please note that I will be using the word "every" also, it is the same word in greek "pas")
1Ti 2:1 I exhort therefore, first of all, that supplications, prayers, intercessions, thanksgivings, be made for all men;
1Ti 2:2 for kings and all that are in high place; that we may lead a tranquil and quiet life in all godliness and gravity.
1Ti 2:3 This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour;
1Ti 2:4 who would have all men to be saved, and come to the knowledge of the truth.
1Ti 2:5 For there is one God, one mediator also between God and men, himself man, Christ Jesus,
1Ti 2:6 who gave himself a ransom for all; the testimony to be borne in its own times;
1Ti 2:7 whereunto I was appointed a preacher and an apostle (I speak the truth, I lie not), a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and truth.
1Ti 2:8 I desire therefore that the men pray in every place, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and disputing.
VERSE 1---- In verse 1 the term all is used but does not mean each and every individual person in all times everywhere. It is speaking of all kinds of rulers (specified in verse 2---all kinds of kings and people in high places). If the term "all" in verse 1 means all men everywhere in all times, then have you went through your local phone book and prayed for each and every name? Then you go to the phone book in the next area code, and the next, and then pray for each individual person in China. Of course verse 1 is not speaking of each and every individual person. In fact when we read verse 2, we see categories of people such as rulers. So then, just as we pray for all categories of men God will save some in all categories of men. We do not pray for each and everyone individually, and God will not save each and everyone individually in verse 4.
VERSE 4---- The use of the term in verse 4 speaks of God desiring all men to be saved. If God desires the salvation of all men, then why are not all men saved? Or will God spend all eternity weeping over all those he failed to save. I guess he just cannot get done what he really wants. On the other hand, if we read the term "all" in verse 4 the same way we read the word "all" in verse 1, God desires the salvation of all kinds of men. Rulers, people in high places, and also other kinds of people, but not each and every individual everywhere.
VERSE 5 & 6---- If God gave Jesus a ransom for all men everywhere, then we have universalism. Also, in verse 5 when he speaks of Christ mediating between God and man, he would do this for all the ransomed people. So then, if some go to hell, then the mediating ministry of the great high priest, Jesus, has failed and is insufficient. So then, Jesus appeals his shed blood and the Father says, "not enough, I will still send some to hell."
VERSE 8 ---- If we are to pray in every place, did you start in the kitchen and pray for all men on each of the chairs in the kitchen? Then did you stand on the kitchen table and pray from each spot? Did you climb to the roof and stand on each and every shingle on the roof and pray on them? The word "every" in this passage is still the word "all" in greek (pas). Obviously no one reads verse 8 as meaning each and every place in the universe without exception. Neither in verse 4 is God trying to save all men without exception.
***** The word "all" in verse 1,2 and 8 cannot mean all men everywhere at all times. Why then do those who quote verse 4 assume that it absolutely must mean all men everywhere? The reason is that they do not look at the context to determine the meaning of a word.
The next passage quoted is Titus 2:11. Since Titus 2:11 is much easier to demonstrate the falicy of seeing the word "all" as meaning "all men in all times everywhere," far less space is going to be devoted. Lets begin with a quote of the context.
Tit 2:11 For the grace of God hath appeared, bringing salvation to all men,
Tit 2:12 instructing us, to the intent that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly and righteously and godly in this present world;
First, look at the phrase "bringing salvation to all men." First, to not get universalism, one must read something into that phrase that is not present. Those who misinterpret the verse assume that the phrase "bringing salvation to all men" actually means only "bringing a remote possibility of salvation to all men." The misinterpreted usually assumes that Christ death does not actually save, but only brings a remote possibility of salvation.
Second, notice the pronouns in verse 12. Who is the "us" in verse 12. Verse 11 and verse 12 are part of once sentence. The word "us" and the words "all men" are the same group. The grace of God appears to "us" and to "all men." The word "all" here speaks of a group. If I say "all" those in my living room will get money. I will give each of you a million dollars. --- Those in my living room are the "all" and they are they "you." I am not going to give a million dollars to all men everywhere. Only those in my living room. The word "All" in the context of Titus 2:11 is used in the same way. It is used with the pronoun "us" in verse 12 and signifies a certain specific group of people and not all men everywhere. That would be universalism.
The last reference is 1 Peter 3:9. This reference is the easiest to demonstrate that it is not speaking of "all men everywhere in all times and places."
2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some count slackness; but is longsuffering to you-ward, not wishing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
With the pronoun "you-ward" it specificly defines who Peter is talking to. The pronoun "you" in both 1st and 2nd Peter speaks of Christians.
2Pe 3:1 This is now, beloved, the second epistle that I write unto you; and in both of them I stir up your sincere mind by putting you in remembrance;
A reference to the elect....
1Pe 1:1 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the elect who are sojourners ....
In 1 Peter 3:9 God is not slack concerning his promises to the elect (you) and is longsufering to "you"..... not willing for any of you (the elect) to perish, but willing to wait for each and every one of the elect to come to repentance.
Unfortunately, I have seen non-Calvinists misrepresent the context of so many more passages, and that is how the game works. Now someone is going to jump to yet another passage and I am aware of many other passages with the word "all" or "world" or something like that which is used out of context. The general way conversations go like this is for someone to jump to yet other verses. Rarely will anyone dispute the contexts we are discussing. Rarely will anyone even try to dispute verses I quote. My hat is off to gr8grace, so far he is the only one to attempt working on the context of any passage quoted by me. So far, he is a notch above the rest because only he tried to work with 2 Thes 2:13 ...... or any passage I quoted. I rarely see any attempts to counter arguments, most just jump to yet another context. But, that is the way the game always works out.
