I’m not following the evidence (whether Biblical or reasoned) for your specific claim on this particular point. Can you clarify, please, why you think no one could ever know (I mean literally know) what their punishment will be: Just for an example of how inaccurate this statement is, do you mean we will NEVER know (as in literally never, post-judgment) or that Jesus doesn’t literally know what their punishment will be?
Do you think the city of Sodom (for example) was not literally destroyed as an example of their punishment we should know? [I think it’s a perfectly literal and reasonable example, which is why Peter and Jude used it.]
as Sodom and Gomorrah and the towns around them indulged in sexual immorality and pursued unnatural desire in the same way as these, are exhibited as an example by undergoing the punishment of eternal fire.
Jude 1:7 -
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Jude 1:7&version=LEB
Do you think there are not people who can (and have done so) literally kill the body? [I think there are literal murderes that kill the body but not the soul, which is why Jesus gives us this
perfectly understandable, and literal example.]
And do not be afraid of those who kill the body but are not able to kill the soul, but instead be afraid of the one who is able to destroy both soul and body in hell.
Matthew 10:28 -
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Matthew 10:28&version=LEB
Where (and more importantly why) does Jesus’ statement above
turn from being a very literal example (murder of the body only) to being non literal on your understanding of the punishment (Hell)? Seems to me it’s all literal. Very literal.
But as for the cowards and unbelievers and detestable persons and murderers and sexually immoral people and sorcerers and idolaters and all liars, their share is in the lake that burns with fire and sulphur, which is the second death.
Revelation 21:8 -
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Revelation 21:8&version=LEB
Why do you not believe “their share in the Lake of fire”
or as Jesus said other places “cast into Hell”, is not literally their “second death” consisting quite literally of the destruction of their body and soul in Hell?
I understand there are metaphors and symbolism throughout Revelation (to include the vision of a “Lake of Fire”). And they can be deep and tricky to literalize at times when the authors don’t do so. BUT at times, Jesus (and His prophets in other Texts) tells the literal meaning of these visions/metaphors. Rev 21:8 is just such a time. Daniel is literally told what dreams mean, etc.