The Lord's day

[Free]

dirtfarmer here

Is correct, according to scripture, to call Sunday " The Lords day" or should it be called " the first day of the week"?

"The Lord's day" is the first day of the week, which we now call Sunday. The Didache (50-120 AD) also refers to the first day of the week as the Lord's day. Just call it Sunday in keeping with the times so everyone knows what you're talking about.

 

[dirtfarmer]

"The Lord's day" is the first day of the week, which we now call Sunday. The Didache (50-120 AD) also refers to the first day of the week as the Lord's day. Just call it Sunday in keeping with the times so everyone knows what you're talking about.

hello Free, dirtfarmer here

I don't see the "first day of the week" being called the "Lord's day" in scripture, but I do find that the tribulation and end time judgment being call "the day of the Lord" or as in modern time "Lord's day".

 

[Free]

I don't see the "first day of the week" being called the "Lord's day" in scripture,

That doesn't matter. That's what it means; that's what the early Christians used it to mean. It was the day Christ rose and the day he ascended. The Lord's day is the first day of the week.

but I do find that the tribulation and end time judgment being call "the day of the Lord" or as in modern time "Lord's day".

No. "The day of the Lord" is not the same as "the Lord's day."

Do you believe the day of the Lord has happened already?

 

[dirtfarmer]

That doesn't matter. That's what it means; that's what the early Christians used it to mean. It was the day Christ rose and the day he ascended. The Lord's day is the first day of the week.


No. "The day of the Lord" is not the same as "the Lord's day."

Do you believe the day of the Lord has happened already?

hello Free, dirtfarmer here

What doesn't matter? scripture?

As I have stated that "day of the Lord" or the Lord's day mentioned Revelation chapter one is not the first day of the week, but a time of judgment. Can you furnish scripture references to "Sunday" being called the Lord's day in scripture?

 

[Free]

hello Free, dirtfarmer here

What doesn't matter? scripture?

As I have stated that "day of the Lord" or the Lord's day mentioned Revelation chapter one is not the first day of the week, but a time of judgment. Can you furnish scripture references to "Sunday" being called the Lord's day in scripture?

I asked a question, please answer.

 

[dirtfarmer]

That doesn't matter. That's what it means; that's what the early Christians used it to mean. It was the day Christ rose and the day he ascended. The Lord's day is the first day of the week.


No. "The day of the Lord" is not the same as "the Lord's day."

Do you believe the day of the Lord has happened already?

hello Free, dirtfarmer here

As to your question, the answer is no.

To me it is silly to not answer a post because your question hasn't been answered.

If I ask you the question: "Do you still beat your wife", the answer should be apparent. You are a Christian and don't beat your wife, only an unsaved person would do that.

 

[Free]

hello Free, dirtfarmer here

As to your question, the answer is no.

To me it is silly to not answer a post because your question hasn't been answered.

If I ask you the question: "Do you still beat your wife", the answer should be apparent. You are a Christian and don't beat your wife, only an unsaved person would do that.

It may seem silly to you but why should you expect me to answer your post when you didn't fully answer mine? I asked that question for a reason, as you will see. At least you think the answer to my question is apparent.

There is only one place in all of Scripture where the phrase "the Lord's day" is used:

Rev 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and I heard behind me a loud voice like a trumpet (ESV)

So, since the answer to my question is that the day of the Lord has not yet happened, and John says he "was in the Spirit on the Lord's day," how is it then that you can say that "the Lord's day" is the same as "the day of the Lord"? John received this vision on a specific day, which would be a day of the week, the Lord's day. Those are his words, not mine. John cannot be referring to being "in the Spirit on the day of the Lord," since we both agree that that has not yet happened. If you want to still argue that the Lord's day and day of the Lord are one and the same, then the day of judgement has happened.

Throughout the entire Bible, "day of the Lord" and "day of Christ" are used to denote the day of judgement, and yet that is not the phrase John uses. John speaks of receiving his revelation on a specific day, not about a specific day, and it cannot be about a specific day since the entire revelation spans millennia, not a single day. So there is no justification then for claiming that "the Lord's day" is the same as "day of the Lord." And, again, this point is further supported by the Didache, a very early Christian document that refers to the first day of the week as the Lord's day.

As I have stated that "day of the Lord" or the Lord's day mentioned Revelation chapter one is not the first day of the week, but a time of judgment. Can you furnish scripture references to "Sunday" being called the Lord's day in scripture?

Again, a double standard. You want me to 'furnish scripture references to "Sunday" being called the Lord's day in scripture,' yet you have not done the same to show that the day of the Lord is the Lord's day. All you have given is your opinion.

But let's just get this out of the way: I cannot give Scripture to show that Sunday is called the Lord's day and you cannot give Scripture to show that the day of the Lord is called the Lord's day. I have, however, given sufficient reason as to why the first day of the week is what John refers to as the Lord's day. If you have any reason other than your opinion, I would like to hear it.

 

[tim-from-pa]

My two cents (since I'm one into time-keeping) is I learned to interpret the "Lord's Day" as "Day of the Lord" as the only place the KJV has "Lord's day" is in Revelation 1:10. The context is the same as what the bible calls the "Day of the Lord" meaning end times stated over and over again by the prophets. After all, John was describing visions yet future.

Somewhere along the line it's been interpreted as Sunday being the "Lord's Day" with the rationalization that the Lord arose on that day of the week despite the bible never using that phrase. If there's any day of the week that the Lord designated, it was Sabbath along with 7 annual Sabbaths extra. Actually, since people use a Gregorian calendar now to designate days, the time in which they start is different than the Jewish days. In that sense, Christ did not really rise on Sunday, either, but actually Saturday. The feast day designating the resurrection is a Sunday but keeping in mind that as Sunday dawned on the Jewish calendar Christ was already risen or being risen (which is instantaneous anyway) so the day represents the first day of his new life and his ascension to the Father to present his finished work. And indeed, he said he'd be in the tomb 3 days and 3 nights. Sunday would start the 4th day, but the very end of the Sabbath/start of Sunday would still be the third full day.

 

[dirtfarmer]

It may seem silly to you but why should you expect me to answer your post when you didn't fully answer mine? I asked that question for a reason, as you will see. At least you think the answer to my question is apparent.

There is only one place in all of Scripture where the phrase "the Lord's day" is used:

Rev 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and I heard behind me a loud voice like a trumpet (ESV)

So, since the answer to my question is that the day of the Lord has not yet happened, and John says he "was in the Spirit on the Lord's day," how is it then that you can say that "the Lord's day" is the same as "the day of the Lord"? John received this vision on a specific day, which would be a day of the week, the Lord's day. Those are his words, not mine. John cannot be referring to being "in the Spirit on the day of the Lord," since we both agree that that has not yet happened. If you want to still argue that the Lord's day and day of the Lord are one and the same, then the day of judgement has happened.

Throughout the entire Bible, "day of the Lord" and "day of Christ" are used to denote the day of judgement, and yet that is not the phrase John uses. John speaks of receiving his revelation on a specific day, not about a specific day, and it cannot be about a specific day since the entire revelation spans millennia, not a single day. So there is no justification then for claiming that "the Lord's day" is the same as "day of the Lord." And, again, this point is further supported by the Didache, a very early Christian document that refers to the first day of the week as the Lord's day.


Again, a double standard. You want me to 'furnish scripture references to "Sunday" being called the Lord's day in scripture,' yet you have not done the same to show that the day of the Lord is the Lord's day. All you have given is your opinion.

But let's just get this out of the way: I cannot give Scripture to show that Sunday is called the Lord's day and you cannot give Scripture to show that the day of the Lord is called the Lord's day. I have, however, given sufficient reason as to why the first day of the week is what John refers to as the Lord's day. If you have any reason other than your opinion, I would like to hear it.

hello Free, dirtfarmer here

It doesn't seem reasonable that the vision given to John of the Revelation of Jesus Christ would be on "first day of the week"
According to the site, "Bible Study Tools", John's use of the phrase predates it's use by Christians to designate the day of Christ's resurrection. The term "Lord's day" is never used for the day of worship. "The first day of the week" is uniformly used as the day of worship. To use "the Lord's Day" as the day of worship, is to read back into the term a meaning that was not used for the day of worship, but is used a judgment.

Not my opinion but facts obtained from study.
I will not belabor the point any more. I understand it as I have described and will adhere to my belief until later convinced with greater evidence

Will converse on other subject
have a blessed day
dirtfarmer

 

[for_his_glory]

The day of the Lord and the Lords day are two different things.The Sabbath is Saturday a day of rest, the seventh day, the day God rested from all He created and sanctified it as a day of rest, Genesis 2:1-3

The day of the Lord is a day of Gods great wrath being poured out on those who refuse to repent. It is always pointed out as the day at hand meaning in Gods timing. The phrase the day of the Lord is used nineteen times in the Old Testament (Isaiah 2:12; 13:6, 9; Ezekiel 13:5, 30:3; Joel 1:15, 2:1,11,31; 3:14; Amos 5:18,20; Obadiah 15; Zephaniah 1:7,14; Zechariah 14:1; Malachi. 4:5) and five times in the New Testament (Acts 2:20; 1 Thessalonians 5:2; 2 Thessalonians 2:2; 2 Peter 3:10). It is also alluded to in other passages (Revelation 6:17; 16:14).

The Lord's day only appears once in scripture in Rev 1:10. It gives no reference to what day of the week it was as every day is the Lord's day, but more specific refers to the Sabbath day in Mark 16:9; Acts 2:42; 20:7; 1Corinthians 16:1,2 . John was in the Spirit, but yet in his physical body when he received from the angel all these revelations that he wrote down. Throughout scripture the Lord's day is usually referred to as the Sabbath being the seventh day of the week, Genesis 2:1-3 a day of rest

 

[Free]

hello Free, dirtfarmer here

It doesn't seem reasonable that the vision given to John of the Revelation of Jesus Christ would be on "first day of the week"
According to the site, "Bible Study Tools", John's use of the phrase predates it's use by Christians to designate the day of Christ's resurrection. The term "Lord's day" is never used for the day of worship. "The first day of the week" is uniformly used as the day of worship. To use "the Lord's Day" as the day of worship, is to read back into the term a meaning that was not used for the day of worship, but is used a judgment.

Not my opinion but facts obtained from study.
I will not belabor the point any more. I understand it as I have described and will adhere to my belief until later convinced with greater evidence

Will converse on other subject
have a blessed day
dirtfarmer

It is, in fact, your opinion and not facts. Your position is, quite frankly, very weak. To use “the Lord’s day” as the day of judgement, is to read back into the term a meaning that was not used for the day of judgement, but is used for the first day of the week.

While it is possible John’s use predated the early church’s use, that in no way means that he was referring to the day of the Lord. It would be exceedingly odd for him to be the only to use that phrase in all of Scripture and use it only once if he was referring to the day of judgement.

But it is also possible that the early church’s use predated John’s, hence why John used it to refer to the first day of the week. Yes, there will be a day of judgement, but Revelation spans millennia—past, present, and future—and culminates in the day of judgement followed by the heavenly Jerusalem. Hence, it simply and logically cannot be referring to the day of judgement.

 

[Free]

My two cents (since I'm one into time-keeping) is I learned to interpret the "Lord's Day" as "Day of the Lord" as the only place the KJV has "Lord's day" is in Revelation 1:10. The context is the same as what the bible calls the "Day of the Lord" meaning end times stated over and over again by the prophets. After all, John was describing visions yet future.

Somewhere along the line it's been interpreted as Sunday being the "Lord's Day" with the rationalization that the Lord arose on that day of the week despite the bible never using that phrase. If there's any day of the week that the Lord designated, it was Sabbath along with 7 annual Sabbaths extra. Actually, since people use a Gregorian calendar now to designate days, the time in which they start is different than the Jewish days. In that sense, Christ did not really rise on Sunday, either, but actually Saturday. The feast day designating the resurrection is a Sunday but keeping in mind that as Sunday dawned on the Jewish calendar Christ was already risen or being risen (which is instantaneous anyway) so the day represents the first day of his new life and his ascension to the Father to present his finished work. And indeed, he said he'd be in the tomb 3 days and 3 nights. Sunday would start the 4th day, but the very end of the Sabbath/start of Sunday would still be the third full day.

As I told dirtfarmer, Revelation spans millennia—past, present, and future. There simply is no way to see it as all future, even from John’s perspective.

 

[reba]

I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them, and saw the souls that were slain for the witness of Jesus, for the word of God, did not receive the mark, they lived and reigned with Christ a 1000 years....
On such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of His Christ, and shall reign with Him a 1000 years.
So by my understanding, we become priests, AFTER the tribulation.

1Pe 2:5 Ye also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, an holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.
1Pe 2:6 Wherefore also it is contained in the scripture, Behold, I lay in Sion a chief corner stone, elect, precious: and he that believeth on him shall not be confounded.
1Pe 2:7 Unto you therefore which believe he is precious: but unto them which be disobedient, the stone which the builders disallowed, the same is made the head of the corner,
1Pe 2:8 And a stone of stumbling, and a rock of offence, even to them which stumble at the word, being disobedient: whereunto also they were appointed.
1Pe 2:9 But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light:
1Pe 2:10 Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy.

 

[tim-from-pa]

As I told dirtfarmer, Revelation spans millennia—past, present, and future. There simply is no way to see it as all future, even from John’s perspective.

Yeah, that was the point of the second part of my post was that if a week day was implied, the only repetitious week day was the Sabbath. However, the Sabbath was not called the "Lord's Day" that I am aware of, and indeed, the Jewish language constrains them to say "the Day of the Lord" which is the equivalent term. So what was John then saying? If it's not about eschatology, I don't think anyone knows. Christ's resurrection is referred to as "Firstfruits" as all the feasts of the Lord were then and now in full effect yet. So there was already a day before Christ's resurrection to observe, but it was only yearly.

 

[dianegcook]

Some do, and though all in Christ are heirs, not all are joint heirs with Christ. Rom 8:17. There are those of Rev 7:15, therefore are they before the throne of God, and serve him day and night in his temple: and he that sitteth on the throne shall dwell among them.

Hi Eugene
Rev.7:15 is a seal.knowledge of a trump.
Rev.6:9-11is also a seal
Saw under the alter the souls of them that were slain..
White robes were given to everyone of them.

The trump ,
Rev.11:18
Give reward unto thy servants the prophets, and to the saints and them that fear Thy name, small and great..

 

[dianegcook]

hello dianegcook, dirtfarmer here

I do not find that the body of believers become priests, but I do find the 144,000 sealed during the tribulation, that death will not hurt them, are the kingdom of priest that will execute the command given to the disciples in Matthew 28:18-20.

The church is the bride of Christ, not the subjects of the earthly kingdom that is to be established. We rule with Christ as his bride, we are not subjects of the earthly kingdom.

Revelation was written by John an apostle to the circumcision, not an apostle to the heathen(Gentile)

Hi dirtfarmer
Do you consider yourself as an ELect?
I believe I came from the tribe of Ephraim, does that mean, I am a bride or a child of the circumcised?

You can read about the millennium reign in the book of Ezekiel chapters 40-48..
40:46
The priest are the sons of Zadok, which means Elect..among the sons of Levi.
1Cor.6:2,3
Do ye not know that the saints shall judge the world?
Know ye not that we shall judge angels?

 

[dianegcook]

1Pe 2:5 Ye also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, an holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.
1Pe 2:6 Wherefore also it is contained in the scripture, Behold, I lay in Sion a chief corner stone, elect, precious: and he that believeth on him shall not be confounded.
1Pe 2:7 Unto you therefore which believe he is precious: but unto them which be disobedient, the stone which the builders disallowed, the same is made the head of the corner,
1Pe 2:8 And a stone of stumbling, and a rock of offence, even to them which stumble at the word, being disobedient: whereunto also they were appointed.
1Pe 2:9 But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light:
1Pe 2:10 Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy.

Yes, Amen
As I pointed out to dirtfarmer, royal priesthood, chosen...elect
Now and on the day of the Lord.

 

[dirtfarmer]

Hi dirtfarmer
Do you consider yourself as an ELect?
I believe I came from the tribe of Ephraim, does that mean, I am a bride or a child of the circumcised?

You can read about the millennium reign in the book of Ezekiel chapters 40-48..
40:46
The priest are the sons of Zadok, which means Elect..among the sons of Levi.
1Cor.6:2,3
Do ye not know that the saints shall judge the world?
Know ye not that we shall judge angels?

hello dianegcook, dirtfarmer here

I am not Jewish therefore not part of the elect. I am part of the bride of Christ and belong to none of the 12 tribes.

As I read 1 Corinthians 6:2-3 it is comcerning that the saints shall judge the world and also the angels. Nothing about being part of any of the 12 tribes.

Ezekiel 40-48 is about the millennial kingdom in which the 144,000 sealed , 12,000 from each tribe will preach and teach the whole world about Christ. This kingdom is the earthly kingdom and the third temple that will be built, that was promise to the Hebrews in the old testament.

I am not of the belief that the "replacement theology" teaches.

 

[reba]

.

 

[Free]

Yeah, that was the point of the second part of my post was that if a week day was implied, the only repetitious week day was the Sabbath. However, the Sabbath was not called the "Lord's Day" that I am aware of, and indeed, the Jewish language constrains them to say "the Day of the Lord" which is the equivalent term.

I'm not sure what any of that has to do with what I said.

So what was John then saying? If it's not about eschatology, I don't think anyone knows.

If it isn't about eschatology, and it most likely isn't, it's simply about the first day of the week. He was saying that he was in the Spirit on the first day of the week when the revelation began.