Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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Hosea 6: 1-3So which was it, on the third day or after the third day which would then be on the fourth day?
Hey All, Perhaps the three days and three nights are significant with regards to proof that Jesus, at least His body, was truely dead. If He shows up Saturday, there would always be that question,"Did He really die?" Something to think about; May God bless,
Taz
Four calendar days are involved with Hosea 6:2, Mark 8:31 and Luke 24:18-21. And Matthew 12:40 involves four calendar days in order to get three night times. So, your references which say on the third day have to be referring to on the third day after the burial. Your other references say nothing about being on or after three days.
I think that is probably the reason. Do you know of any early 1st century sources which support the idea that a person wasn't considered dead until after 3 days?Perhaps the three days and three nights are significant with regards to proof that Jesus, at least His body, was truely dead. If He shows up Saturday, there would always be that question, "Did He really die?"
re: Gary Habermas's comment : "According to Jewish tradition..."Hey All,
I found this concerning the question of why three days.
According to Jewish tradition, a person’s soul/spirit remained with his/her dead body for three days. After three days, the soul/spirit departed.
Here is a shot in the dark ."According to Jewish tradition..."
And I'm asking about the source for making that comment.
The Hebrew idiom "three days and three nights" does not mean 3 24-hour days. In fact and precision, Jesus rose on the 3rd day.When responding to the Pharisees, why do you suppose the Messiah made the specific point that He would be in the "heart of the earth" for 3 days and 3 nights?
But why did the Messiah use three days and three nights in reply to the scribes and Pharisee's request?The Hebrew idiom "three days and three nights" does not mean 3 24-hour days. In fact and precision, Jesus rose on the 3rd day.
Did you click on the link in my post?But why did the Messiah use three days and three nights in reply to the scribes and Pharisee's request?
BTW, how do you know it is an idiom?
Of course. Any particular reason for asking?Did you click on the link in my post?
Gill's Exposition:Of course. Any particular reason for asking?
and Jonah was in the belly of the fish three days and three nights: that is, one whole natural day, consisting of twenty four hours, and part of two others;
I don't see where Gill said how he knew that the term "3 days and 3 nights" was an idiom. What do you have in mind?Gill's Exposition:
Gill thought it was an idiom. I relied on his scholarship.
Good point. Perhaps "idiom" is not the right term. Maybe "a figure of speech" is better. Here are some other scholars who agreed with Gill.I don't see where Gill said how he knew that the term "3 days and 3 nights" was an idiom. What do you have in mind?
Keil and Delitzsch:Three days and three nights; i.e., according to Hebrew usage, parts of the days and nights; i.e. one whole day, and parts of the day before and after this.
Benson:The three days and three nights are not to be regarded as fully three times twenty hours, but are to be interpreted according to Hebrew usage, as signifying that Jonah was vomited up again on the third day after he had been swallowed
“The Hebrew language,” says Lowth, “has no one word to express what we call a natural day; so that what the Greeks express by Νυχθημερον, they denote by a day and a night. Therefore the space of time consisting of one whole revolution of twenty-four hours, and a part of two others, is fitly expressed in that language by three days and three nights. Such a space of time our Lord lay in the grave;” (that is, one whole νυχθημερον, or natural day, and part of two others;) “and we may from thence conclude that Jonah, who was an eminent figure of him in this particular, was no longer in the fish’s belly.”
Good point. Perhaps "idiom" is not the right term. Maybe "a figure of speech" is better. Here are some other scholars who agreed with Gill.
Pulpit:
Keil and Delitzsch:
Benson: