[/COLOR][/SIZE][/SIZE]
I think you are going beyond what the writers of these statements intended if you claim that such statements demonstrate we have no free will (in our fallen state).
I see no reason why these statements cannot refer to a state of affairs where mankind is to some degree subject to these other forces.
Consider a modern analogy. One might assert that "Fred" has been "blinded" by his infatuation with his new girlfriend and that he is now subject to her every whim and fancy. Is this really an assertion that Fred has no free will? No, it is not. It is a fanciful way of saying that Fred is, to some degree, subject to the influences of his new girlfriend - such a characterization as we have of Fred (above) would not, in our culture, be taken as equivalent to a claim that Fred has no free will.
I suspect that there is a lot of this kind of "over-reach" coming from those who would deny a measure of free will in the "lost". Yes, the Bible uses language suggesting that they are slavishly obedient to dark forces, including, of course, their own fallen nature. But, and this is really complex issue of how language is properly interpreted, I suggest that such a picture does not justify a conclusion that the lost are entirely bereft of a measure of self-determining free will.