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The Process Of Justification

I read parables as Jesus directed them to be read, including all the parties, which are,

Gods Word
Mankind
The devil
as Jesus directed to read "all" parables in Mark 4:13

Most believers tend to eliminate the devil. If we see we have sin, and sin is of the devil, and are "sins" of lusts and temptations in the flesh, it's not hard to figure out Jethro.

Let's just honestly face a detested fact here and see that it is our own sins that are "of the devil." 1 John 3:8. There is no way that party will ever be justified or righteous. It won't and can't happen. And that "operation" of temptations and lusts transpire "in the ground" of our flesh. Therefore the flesh is vile, just as Paul notes in Phil. 3:21.

There is no "making" that which is "vile" justified or righteous by any measures.

This is where your understanding runs askew of God's word, as I have taken note of the way you interpret several scriptures incorrectly, of which is from 2 Timothy -

20 But in a great house there are not only vessels of gold and silver, but also of wood and clay, some for honor and some for dishonor.
21
Therefore if anyone cleanses himself from the latter, he will be a vessel for honor, sanctified and useful for the Master, prepared for every good work. 2 Timothy 2:20-21

We are a vessel in God's great house.

If we cleanse our-self of being a vessel of dishonor, we will be a vessel of honor.

You have mistakenly presented this scripture as the believer having two vessels within himself.

Paul clearly says if anyone cleanses himself of the latter... the latter referring to being a vessel of dishonor, of which we are the ones obligated to be involved in the cleansing process, so as to become fit for the Master's use.


Your doctrine wrongly assumes that we are carrying around in us two vessels, one dishonorable and one honorable.

Not so.


JLB
 
2 Corinthians 12:7
And lest I should be exalted above measure through the abundance of the revelations, there was given to me a thorn in the flesh, the messenger of Satan to buffet me, lest I should be exalted above measure.

7 And lest I should be exalted above measure by the abundance of the revelations, a thorn in the flesh was given to me, a messenger of Satan to buffet me, lest I be exalted above measure. 2 Corinthians 12:7

a thorn in the flesh, which is an idiomatic expression for "source of irritation", "a persistent difficulty or annoyance".

This was given to Paul, because... lest I should be exalted above measure by the abundance of the revelations.

You have twisted these words of scripture around so that every Christian has a messenger of Satan in their flesh, when this was clearly unique to Paul, having been caught up to heaven and given an abundance of revelations.


1 It is doubtless not profitable for me to boast. I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord:
2 I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago--whether in the body I do not know, or whether out of the body I do not know, God knows--such a one was caught up to the third heaven.
3 And I know such a man--whether in the body or out of the body I do not know, God knows--
4 how he was caught up into Paradise and heard inexpressible words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.
5 Of such a one I will boast; yet of myself I will not boast, except in my infirmities.
6 For though I might desire to boast, I will not be a fool; for I will speak the truth. But I refrain, lest anyone should think of me above what he sees me to be or hears from me.
7 And lest I should be exalted above measure by the abundance of the revelations, a thorn in the flesh was given to me, a messenger of Satan to buffet me,
lest I be exalted above measure. 2 Corinthians 12:1-7


Again, this was a situation unique to Paul because of the abundance of revelations shown to him, as he was commissioned to write most of the New Testament.

This is not specific to every Christian.


JLB
 
This is where your understanding runs askew of God's word, as I have taken note of the way you interpret several scriptures incorrectly, of which is from 2 Timothy -

20 But in a great house there are not only vessels of gold and silver, but also of wood and clay, some for honor and some for dishonor.
21
Therefore if anyone cleanses himself from the latter, he will be a vessel for honor, sanctified and useful for the Master, prepared for every good work. 2 Timothy 2:20-21

We are a vessel in God's great house.

Unfortunately, like most, you will miss that we "ourselves" are called to 'divide' from the vessel of dishonor. That is not about "some other guy" or "some other sect" but of sin, which is of the devil. 1 John 3:8. There is the "other vessel." The tempter and or his minions. The 'BABY' step out of this matter is to see, honestly, that we have sin, and yes, "our sin" is in fact of the devil, whom we are to purge or divide from. We don't try to 'justify' that worker or working in our own flesh.

Does anyone think they are in Truth by claiming they have "no sin" or even worse, claim that "their sin" is not of the devil?

If we cleanse our-self of being a vessel of dishonor, we will be a vessel of honor.

Uh, no vessel of dishonor is changed into a vessel of honor. They are two different vessels.
You have mistakenly presented this scripture as the believer having two vessels within himself.

Paul clearly says if anyone cleanses himself of the latter... the latter referring to being a vessel of dishonor, of which we are the ones obligated to be involved in the cleansing process, so as to become fit for the Master's use.


I provided Paul's exact example of himself, AND the messenger of Satan in his own flesh:

2 Corinthians 12:
7 And lest I should be exalted above measure through the abundance of the revelations, there was given to me a thorn in the flesh, the messenger of Satan to buffet me, lest I should be exalted above measure.

I see two vessels. Count 'em. Paul ruled OVER the other. He did not lie and say he had no sin. Romans 7 shows the workings of sin "in" Paul.

In Romans 7:7-13 Paul shows how "the law" prompted every form of concupiscence to transpire within him, showing how "sin, which is of the devil" works in automatic resistance, internally, to the law.

In Romans 7:15 Paul says he did things he hated. I am positive that Paul DETESTED the lusts of concupiscence that transpired in his own mind, just as I do.

In Romans 7:19 Paul shows that sin indwelling him, which IS of the devil, caused him to "do evil." Haven't we ALL? Let's just be honest about it for a change, as Paul was.

In Romans 7:21 Paul shows that "evil" was present with him.

Does this all point to sin, which is of the devil? Uh, yes. Undoubtedly.

Your doctrine wrongly assumes that we are carrying around in us two vessels, one dishonorable and one honorable.

Not so.


That's exactly what is spelled out in Romans 9:18-24, that in the "lump" Paul termed "ME" were TWO VESSELS. Paul first laid this understanding upon himself, in Romans 7. Then he transitions it to the blinded of Israel, and to Esau, and to Pharaoh. God does in fact HATE the "vessel" of dishonor and that won't change. We are to "hate" ourselves, because we have sin, and sin is of the devil. All believers discount this, at first. But sooner or later, if they are led in honesty, they will arrive at the same conclusions Paul did.

And if not, such are clearly seen by "excuses" for themselves, and they love their entirety.


It's one thing to 'blame ourselves' only for temptations. When temptations are seen as of the devil, and operational "internally" it takes on a whole nother level of understandings.

Every blinded believer will blame themselves only for "temptations." They will NEVER see their internal temptations as "of the devil" NOR will they or can they see that the devil operates internally through the avenue of temptations, because of the PRIDE of the devil, vaunting over their minds.

1 John 2:16
For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world.
 
7 And lest I should be exalted above measure by the abundance of the revelations, a thorn in the flesh was given to me, a messenger of Satan to buffet me, lest I be exalted above measure. 2 Corinthians 12:7

a thorn in the flesh, which is an idiomatic expression for "source of irritation", "a persistent difficulty or annoyance".

This was given to Paul, because... lest I should be exalted above measure by the abundance of the revelations.

You have twisted these words of scripture around so that every Christian has a messenger of Satan in their flesh, when this was clearly unique to Paul, having been caught up to heaven and given an abundance of revelations.

IF we have sin, WE DO, 1 John 1:8, and sin is of the devil, IT IS, 1 John 3:8, then the math is not all that difficult to fathom here for the honest in heart.

There is no "hiding" from God in Christ under the cloak of self righteousness or false justifications.

We are to bring "every thought" captive to Christ, and this is inclusive of the thoughts of the tempter, within.

There IS CHRIST'S RULE.

2 Corinthians 10:5
Casting down imaginations, and every high thing that exalteth itself against the knowledge of God, and bringing into captivity every thought to the obedience of Christ;

Don't expect the tempter to cooperate.

 
Rom 4:3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.

Belief is an act of will.

Jas 2:21-23 Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar? Do you see that faith was working together with his works, and by works faith was made perfect? And the Scripture was fulfilled which says, “Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.

Acting upon one's belief is "living faith." ( Jas 2:20 ... faith without works is dead)

Pardon me if that is a tangent. I just popped in and may have missed something.

my 2 kopecks
iakov the fool

Belief is not an act of will. Belief is surrender. Abraham surrendered all his preconceptions and accepted what he believed God was telling him, then acted upon his belief.
 
When it comes to this subject ALL have equal VILE ground that can't be justified or made righteous.
No, you are wrong.
Jesus said there are those who have the good soil of an honest and good heart that bears the fruit of righteousness with perseverance:

"15“But the seed in the good soil, these are the ones who have heard the word in an honest and good heart, and hold it fast, and bear fruit with perseverance." (Luke 8:15 NASB)

You are certainly free to speak of the condition of your own heart, but please stop projecting the vile condition of your soil onto others as if everybody else has to be like you.
 
He is speaking of the justification of the ungodly--the making of an ungodly person into a legally righteous person.

The idea of legality is a pagan notion which makes the necessity of law superior to God's will.

You are referring to James's justification--the justification of the righteous.

No. I'm not. I'm not because the "justification of the righteous" is, IMHO, a conceptual fabrication intended to sidestep Jame's clear teaching (which agrees with the teaching of Jesus as well as Paul) that faith without works will not save anyone.

That's what happens over and over in the process of sanctification--that is, our becoming more and more set apart and like Jesus in our behaviors after we have already been made legally righteous in God's sight.

The word. "sanctified" (ἁγιάζω hagiazō) means "to separate from profane things and dedicate to God." (Strongs) It is not a process. A person or thing is either profane and good for common usage, or sanctified, and set aside for God's service. It's an "either-or" situation though the word has come to be (improperly) used to refer to the process of what the Eastern Church calls "Theosis" or "Deification." Those words refer to the process by which man strives with the leading and operation of the Holy Spirit to conform to the original state of man in the image and likeness of God and to be united with God in Christ as His body, the bride of Christ.

Through the process of sanctification, the increasing frequency and quality of our new behaviors justify us as to showing that we do indeed have the righteousness of Christ through faith in him. Those behaviors do not make us righteous. They show us to already be righteous through the blood of Christ.

You have used the word "justified" and/or its variations with different meanings. That is a logical fallacy.

NO behaviors make us righteous. Righteousness is God's application of His divine energies to save those who believe and who strive to obey Him. [Those who love Him keep His commands. (Jhn 14:15)] It is something that God does through His mercy.

Righteousness is not something we have; it is something that God does.

Belief alone is no more than agreement. The devil agrees that Jesus is Lord, that He is the Son of God made flesh, that He died and rose again, that He will come again, and that His kingdom will have no end. And he has the intelligence to be fearful of the Day of the Lord.

Anyway, that's how I see it.

my 2 kopecks
iakov the fool
 
The idea of legality is a pagan notion which makes the necessity of law superior to God's will.
Justification is a legal pardon from the just penalty of the law. That's hardly making law superior to God's will. Quite the opposite I'd say:

"mercy triumphs over judgment" (James 2:13 NASB)

No. I'm not. I'm not because the "justification of the righteous" is, IMHO, a conceptual fabrication intended to sidestep Jame's clear teaching (which agrees with the teaching of Jesus as well as Paul) that faith without works will not save anyone.
Paul explains how Abraham was ALREADY righteous when he got circumcised, saying that his circumcision was the SIGN of the righteousness he ALREADY had:

"For we say, “FAITH WAS CREDITED TO ABRAHAM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS.” 10 How then was it credited? While he was circumcised, or uncircumcised? Not while circumcised, but while uncircumcised; 11 and he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had while uncircumcised" (Romans 4:9-11 NASB capitals in original)

What we do shows us to be righteous. What we believe about Christ is what makes us righteous. James is very clearly teaching justification in regard to the showing of one to already have the righteousness of faith:

"show me your faith without the works, and I will show you my faith by my works.”" (James 2:18 NASB)

It's obvious from the above that James is not saying Abraham MADE himself righteous by his actions but rather SHOWED himself righteous by his actions, just as Paul explains that Abraham got circumcised because he was already made righteous by his faith.

...a conceptual fabrication intended to sidestep Jame's clear teaching (which agrees with the teaching of Jesus as well as Paul) that faith without works will not save anyone.
No, I'm hardly trying to sidestep James' clear teaching. If you know anything about what I defend in this forum you'll know I in no way endorse a dead faith being able to save. Not because works somehow have the power to justify, but because the faith that justifies all by itself changes a person into a new creation that does new works.

The person who can not validate himself as possessing a justifying faith (through the performance of works--like not showing favoritism: James 2:9; taking care of widows and orphans: James 1:27; taking care of the naked and hungry: James 2:15-16) has a faith which did not make them righteous. That's why it's dead (devoid of works). That person is simply not a born-again new creation, or ceased to be one through a falling away into unbelief, and because of that they can not be saved on the Day of Wrath. They are an unbeliever. Their lack of works proving that they are an unbeliever. So I am certainly not trying to sidestep James' clear and plain teaching that the faith that is dead, having no works, can not save a person.
 
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It's obvious from the above that James is not saying Abraham MADE himself righteous by his actions but rather SHOWED himself righteous by his actions, just as Paul explains that Abraham got circumcised because he was already made righteous by his faith.

Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar? James 2:21

Would Abraham have been justified by God, if he refused to obey God, to offer his son Isaac on the altar?



JLB
 
Justification is a legal pardon from the just penalty of the law.
While I think we are generally in agreement about all the issues swirling around here, I would ask you to consider the possibility that justification, understood with more of an emphasis on Biblical narrative and less on "dictionary definition" leads to the conclusion that justification is primarily a term about membership in God's true covenant family, with the "pardon" (forensic) aspect, while important, functioning at a secondary level. I suggest that the Old Testament narrative really focuses on a covenant that includes promised ultimate "vindication" for a particular people. Now, surprisingly to many Jews, Paul argues that membership in the covenant is open to all who hae faith.

Words like "justification" need to be imbued with their Biblical nuance. I do not deny the forensic dimension, I just think it's more likely a secondary meaning, at least in the way Paul uses the term - he hits us over the head repeatedly with his analysis that believer - both Jew and Gentile - are the true vindicated covenant members.
 
Righteousness is not something we have; it is something that God does.
A strong note of agreement with a minor qualification. First, I believe that many in the reformation tradition has misunderstood Paul as claiming that we are imputed with the "righteousness of God". Not so, I believe; yes, we are imputed with righteousness, but it is the righteousness of the person acquitted in the Hebrew lawcourt - it is not God's own righteousness. The righteousness of God is, as you may agree, is (I think) God's own righteous fulfilling of His covenantal promises. I suspect you may not like my claim that we "get" righteousness of any kind (even if not God's own righteousness). Fair enough, I can explain if need be (remember, like you I believe we need good works for final salvation so mine is not the standard reformation view).
 
No, you are wrong.
Jesus said there are those who have the good soil of an honest and good heart that bears the fruit of righteousness with perseverance:

"15“But the seed in the good soil, these are the ones who have heard the word in an honest and good heart, and hold it fast, and bear fruit with perseverance." (Luke 8:15 NASB)

You are certainly free to speak of the condition of your own heart, but please stop projecting the vile condition of your soil onto others as if everybody else has to be like you.

I believe Paul spoke honestly here Jethro:

Philippians 3:21
Who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself.

Self justification and self righteousness is the opposite/opposing to what is taught in the scriptures.

We have "factual sin" of "factual devils." A dishonest person (a mind blinded by the devil) will not and can not arrive at this scriptural conclusion.

1 John 1:
8 If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.

1 John 3:
8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.

The first work that Jesus destroys is dishonesty in believers.


1 John 1:10
If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.

The Spirit teaches, actively so, to be "truthful."

We can not justify or make righteous, that which is contrary to the Spirit.

Galatians 5:17
For the flesh lusteth against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh: and these are contrary the one to the other: so that ye cannot do the things that ye would.


People who claim they have no such contrariness in their own flesh aren't even in an honest theological ballpark.

1 Peter 2:11
Dearly beloved, I beseech you as strangers and pilgrims, abstain from fleshly lusts, which war against the soul;

It is the devil that "lusts" to make us liars, as the liar, he is.

I've learned to appreciate that God has placed truthfulness where no devil in man can tread, because "they" are liars, by nature, and can not speak truthfully.
 
Justification is a legal pardon from the just penalty of the law. That's hardly making law superior to God's will. Quite the opposite I'd say:

"mercy triumphs over judgment" (James 2:13 NASB)


To what penalty of the law are you referring?

Paul explains how Abraham was ALREADY righteous when he got circumcised, saying that his circumcision was the SIGN of the righteousness he ALREADY had:

"For we say, “FAITH WAS CREDITED TO ABRAHAM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS.” 10 How then was it credited? While he was circumcised, or uncircumcised? Not while circumcised, but while uncircumcised; 11 and he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had while uncircumcised" (Romans 4:9-11 NASB capitals in original)


Righteousness is not a "thing" that one may possess. It is a condition of having been united to God in Christ. At Eph 5:30 Paul describes it as marriage; we are the Bride of Christ having become the body of Christ and being of one flesh and bone with Him.

And Re: "NASB capitals in original" The original Greek was entirely in capitals, not just those few words.

What we do shows us to be righteous. What we believe about Christ is what makes us righteous. James is very clearly teaching justification in regard to the showing of one to already have the righteousness of faith:

"show me your faith without the works, and I will show you my faith by my works.”" (James 2:18 NASB)

It's obvious from the above that James is not saying Abraham MADE himself righteous by his actions but rather SHOWED himself righteous by his actions, just as Paul explains that Abraham got circumcised because he was already made righteous by his faith.


James is correcting the false notion that faith alone justifies. He makes it clear that the works are necessary for justification itself and not just as a sign to others that one has received his "writ of justification."

But you have to read more than just the snippet of the passage that fits your personal view.

Jas 2:20-21 But do you want to know, O foolish man, that faith without works is dead? Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar?

The form of the questions requires one to agree that faith without works is indeed dead (i.e.: of no benefit to anyone) and that Abraham was justified WHEN he offered Isaac.

Jas 2:22-23 Do you see that faith was working together with his works, and by works faith was made perfect? And the Scripture was fulfilled which says, “Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.” And he was called the friend of God.

Thus James states that faith is incomplete without works.

Jas 2:24 You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith only.


According to James, a man is justified by works. Works are not just a sign of his having received his "writ of justification", they are inseparable from faith and both are necessary for justification. Faith and works are "the two sides of the same coin."

So while Abraham did not "make" himself righteous by what he did, James is making it very clear that what he did was necessary to BE righteous.

No, I'm hardly trying to sidestep James' clear teaching. If you know anything about what I defend in this forum you'll know I in no way endorse a dead faith being able to save. Not because works somehow have the power to justify, but because the faith that justifies all by itself changes a person into a new creation that does new works.

James makes it perfectly and abundantly clear to those who care to see that faith does not justify "all by itself."

And that sidesteps James teaching. James does not say a result of faith is that the faithful person automatically starts doing good works as if God had reprogrammed him or flipped a switch from "flesh" to "Spirit." Whether a person is saved of remains condemned through not believing, everyone was created to do good works. God didn't create man to do evil.

James stated that the works are necessary and are combined with faith in order to be justified.

Jas 2:14 What does it profit, my brethren, if someone says he has faith but does not have works? Can faith save him?

The category of the question requires a negative answer. Without works, faith cannot save anyone.

[QUOTE]The person who can not validate himself as possessing a justifying faith (through the performance of works--like not showing favoritism: James 2:9; taking care of widows and orphans: James 1:27; taking care of the naked and hungry: James 2:15-16) has a faith which did not make them righteous. That's why it's dead (devoid of works). That person is simply not a born-again new creation, or ceased to be one through a falling away into unbelief, and because of that they can not be saved on the Day of Wrath. They are an unbeliever. Their lack of works proving that they are an unbeliever. So I am certainly not trying to sidestep James' clear and plain teaching that the faith that is dead, having no works, can not save a person.
[/QUOTE]

If you are not sidestepping; your are misunderstanding.

Works do not "validate" faith or "prove" that a person is a believer; they work together with faith.

Jas 2:22 Do you see that faith was working together with his works, and by works faith was made perfect?

"perfect" = τελειόω (teleioō)
Strong's g5048: to make perfect, complete, to carry through completely, to accomplish, finish, bring to an end

my 2 kopecks
iakov the fool
 
Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar? James 2:21

Would Abraham have been justified by God, if he refused to obey God, to offer his son Isaac on the altar?



JLB
From: http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/justify

Justify: to show (an act, claim, statement, etc.) to be just or right

How can Abraham show himself to be righteous if he does not do anything righteous?

"show me your faith without the works, and I will show you my faith by my works.”" (James 2:18 NASB bold mine)
 
From: http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/justify

Justify: to show (an act, claim, statement, etc.) to be just or right

How can Abraham show himself to be righteous if he does not do anything righteous?

Using a dictionary of modern, American English (which is the language of a western, scientific, culture) is not a very productive method for discerning the meaning of an ancient, Koine Greek word used in an eastern, pre-scientific, culture and which was very likely a Greek near equivalent usage of the Hebraic word, "Tsedaqa."

And the point of doing righteous acts is not to "show" anyone anything. The point is to act in a righteous manner because you believe it is God's will for you to do so and to have absolutely no regard as to how anyone other than God might judge your action. It is for the cause of pleasing God that the martyrs shed their blood, not in order to demonstrate to other men that they believe.

my two kopecks
iakov the fool
 
Paul makes it clear that those who are, or are being, sanctified (both are true) have already been perfected for all time by the one offering of Jesus

Yes.

"being" sanctified, ......."Being"....as in continuing what is already established, vs, trying to become or trying to stay established over time.

"being", as in finished and continuing.

Think of it like this...
Jesus's blood was shed 2000+ years ago, YET, its still effective forever.
So, that is something that was long ago established, (Blood and Cross) and they are STILL Sanctifying till forever and ever, ....and that is the proper understanding of the sense of "being" sanctified......as the Blood of Jesus is STILL sanctifying you today and 1000 years from now, just like it did when you were saved.
 
Yes.

"being" sanctified, ......."Being"....as in continuing what is already established, vs, trying to become or trying to stay established over time.

"being", as in finished and continuing.

Think of it like this...
Jesus's blood was shed 2000+ years ago, YET, its still effective forever.
So, that is something that was long ago established, (Blood and Cross) and they are STILL Sanctifying till forever and ever, ....and that is the proper understanding of the sense of "being" sanctified......as the Blood of Jesus is STILL sanctifying you today and 1000 years from now, just like it did when you were saved.

Absolutely!

Makes me want to sing, "Nothing but the blood of Jesus."

Heb 10:10 ... we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

sanctified = ἁγιάζω (hagiazō )
Strong's no. g37: To separate from profane things and dedicate to God, to consecrate things to God, to dedicate people to God

We have been separated (sanctified) from profane use to sacred, holy use.

1Co 6:19-20 Or do you not know that your body is the temple of the Holy Spirit who is in you, whom you have from God, and you are not your own? For you were bought at a price; therefore glorify God in your bodyfn and in your spirit, which are God’s.

But we are not yet "perfected". Perfecting is a process.

Eph 4:11-13 And He Himself gave some to be apostles, some prophets, some evangelists, and some pastors and teachers, for the equipping of the saints for the work of ministry, for the edifying (building up) of the body of Christ, until we all come to the unity of the faith and of the knowledge of the Son of God, to a perfect man, to the measure of the stature of the fullness of Christ;

The word "until" means that it is not a completed process.
The word "perfect" refers to the achieving of a goal
The "fullness of Christ" is that goal. That we would all become a perfect image (Ikon) of Christ.

my 2 kopecks
iakov the fool
 
Absolutely!
Makes me want to sing, "Nothing but the blood of Jesus."
Heb 10:10 ... we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.
sanctified = ἁγιάζω (hagiazō )
Strong's no. g37: To separate from profane things and dedicate to God, to consecrate things to God, to dedicate people to God
my 2 kopecks
iakov the fool


Makes me want to sing, "Nothing but the blood of Jesus."


"Nothing but the Blood", and "Be thou my vision".......are probably my 2 fav Hymns.
"Nothing but the Blood", is maybe the most perfectly statted Doctrine of Salvation (other then "Amazing Grace"), that has ever been written and sung.
Truly Anointed words.


Heb 10:10 ... we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.


YES. !
and this can be shown as a completed event as we look at this phrase...."HAVE BEEN".
Modern vernacular equivalent would be : DONE DEAL !
 
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