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The Process Of Justification

Proven to you perhaps, but not to the LORD.

Abraham made the offering by which he was approved in Gen. 22 He was justified, meaning God approved him, when the LORD said, "Now I know"

Abraham was justified when He obeyed [the Gospel] in Genesis 12.

And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed. Galatians 3:8

Abraham obeyed the "Gospel" that was preached to him, as he responded with obedient faith.

Abraham demonstrated the righteousness which is according to faith, when he obeyed the Lord when called in Genesis 12.



JLB
 
Abraham was justified when He obeyed [the Gospel] in Genesis 12.

And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed. Galatians 3:8

Abraham obeyed the "Gospel" that was preached to him, as he responded with obedient faith.

Abraham demonstrated the righteousness which is according to faith, when he obeyed the Lord when called in Genesis 12.



JLB

According to you.

But the truth is Abraham made the sacrificial offering in Gen. 22 And the LORD said, "Now I know that you fear God, seeing you have not withheld your son, your only son, from me." Gen. 22:12 And God called him friend. James 2:23 Isa. 41:8

The friendship of the Lord is for those who fear him, and he makes known to them his covenant. Ps. 25:14
 
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Sigh...Again, of course it's by faith we come to Jesus, but we must have our daily sins removed or we "have no part with" Christ, which means loss of justification. You are forcing "faith" into verses that don't even deal with faith. You have Jesus saying that believers must have "daily sins removed" or lose justification, then in the next breath, saying but you are totally justified, despite daily sins. No matter how you slice it, it's contradictory. This is not fun anymore...
You really don't understand that it isn't his dirty feet that would cause 'completely clean' but dirty footed Peter to have no part of Jesus, but rather Peter's refusal to get his dirty feet washed that would cause that? You 'hand-on-the-Bible' honestly can't see that?

Jesus said dirty footed Peter was completely clean (John 13:10) even though he had dirty feet. Do you disagree with that? That shows you right there that his dirty feet had no effect on his completely clean status.--completely contrary to your doctrine. He loses his completely clean status only if he refuses to submit to having his feet washed. You really can't see that? Honest?
 
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According to you.

But the truth is Abraham made the sacrificial offering in Gen. 22 And the LORD said, "Now I know that you fear God, seeing you have not withheld your son, your only son, from me." Gen. 22:12 And God called him friend. James 2:23 Isa. 41:8

The friendship of the Lord is for those who fear him, and he makes known to them his covenant. Ps. 25:14


Please help me to understand how you see what I am saying, as conflicting with what your saying.


But the truth is Abraham made the sacrificial offering in Gen. 22 And the LORD said, "Now I know that you fear God, seeing you have not withheld your son, your only son, from me."

Yes sir.

That's what it said.

How does that conflict with what I said about Abraham in Genesis 12?

Both Genesis 12 and 22 show The acts of obedience that Abraham dis, in response to God.


Without the first act of obedience in Genesis 12, there would be no son to offer on the altar.


JLB
 
Please help me to understand how you see what I am saying, as conflicting with what your saying.




Yes sir.

That's what it said.

How does that conflict with what I said about Abraham in Genesis 12?

Both Genesis 12 and 22 show The acts of obedience that Abraham dis, in response to God.


Without the first act of obedience in Genesis 12, there would be no son to offer on the altar.


JLB

The question is, was Abraham justified in Gen. 12?

I agree Abraham obeyed the LORD, and he left his father's house. But to my way of thinking, justification is a reward. Abraham left his father's house. Was that it? Was that Abraham's purpose? I would say not. Abraham had more to do. As you say, he was only starting out.

So I have to ask myself, when was Abraham justified? Was it when God called him friend, or was it when he left his father's house? What was it that made God swear he would bless Abraham and multiply his descendants? Gen. 22:17 Gen. 22 tells us it was because Abraham was ready to offer his son as a burnt offering.

I'd say he was justified in Gen.22
 
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You really don't understand that it isn't his dirty feet that would cause 'completely clean' but dirty footed Peter to have no part of Jesus, but rather Peter's refusal to get his dirty feet washed that would cause that? You 'hand-on-the-Bible' honestly can't see that?
Peter's refusal to have Jesus do what, Jethro? Haven't you been saying from the beginning that it's his refusal to have his daily sins removed? A believer can refuse to have daily sins removed, yet still have faith in Christ. This is a fact you keep ignoring. People sin, even believers, and this is what Jesus is addressing, not lack of faith of the believer, but the sin of the believer. If a believer refuses to repent, he can still remain a believer, but lose justification. This is what Jesus is saying. It couldn't be more clear. Jesus is saying that believers, if they don't get their daily sins removed, will lose justification. This is a possibility and what Jesus is addressing. Jesus is not addressing the faith of Peter at all, that's being taken for granted. "If I do not remove your (believer) daily sins, you (believer) will not remain justified". This is what the verse says and what you have to honestly deal with, instead of slipping in the word "faith" and saying "see?" His "refusal" is nowhere called a "lack of faith"...Nowhere. Jesus didn't address Peter's faith...Anywhere. You are adding your own "doctrine" to the text.

If you disagree, please point me to the verse that mentions faith. This is what you have to do to prove your point, that Jesus was referring to faith. I have asked for this proof before and have been ignored. Will you ignore the actual words of the text and go off on another tangent, or simply show where Jesus mentions faith, in these verses?


Jesus said dirty footed Peter was completely clean (John 13:10) even though he had dirty feet. Do you disagree with that?
Nope, but, as I have been saying from the beginning without changing the meanings of words, I disagree that "completely clean" here means "justified forever". If you believe that, you have set up a contradiction.

Dirty feet (keeping daily sins) means loss of justification (having no part with Jesus).

Then you turn around and have Jesus contradicting Himself in the next breath.

Dirty feet (keeping daily sins) "has no effect on" justification (completely clean). Which you reiterate here:

That shows you right there that his dirty feet had no effect on his completely clean status.--completely contrary to your doctrine.
LOL...completely contrary to my doctrine and common sense. Keeping daily sin "has no effect" on justification, yet in the verse above, keeping daily sin makes a believer have "no part with" Jesus, lose justification. You can clear up this quagmire by simply showing how a believer can refuse to repent and have sins forgiven and still remain justified, while at the same time losing justification. Pretty simple...


He loses his completely clean status only if he refuses to submit to having his feet washed. You really can't see that? Honest?
OK. A believer says "I refuse to have Jesus wash my feet. I refuse to allow Him to remove the stain of my daily sins".

1) Does this believer "have no part with" Jesus (lose justification)?

2) Is this believer "completely clean" (remaining justified)?

Here are the verses in question:

[Jesus] got up from supper, and laid aside His garments; and taking a towel, He girded Himself. Then He poured water into the basin, and began to wash the disciples' feet and to wipe them with the towel with which He was girded. So He came to Simon Peter. He said to Him, "Lord, do You wash my feet?" Jesus answered and said to him, "What I do you do not realize now, but you will understand hereafter." Peter said to Him, "Never shall You wash my feet!" Jesus answered him, "If I do not wash you, you have no part with Me." Simon Peter said to Him, "Lord, then wash not only my feet, but also my hands and my head." Jesus said to him, "He who has bathed needs only to wash his feet, but is completely clean; and you are clean, but not all of you."For He knew the one who was betraying Him; for this reason He said, "Not all of you are clean." (Jhn 13:4-11 NASB)

There is one word curiously missing from these verses...and the ones before...and the ones after...Hummm...What could that word be? Oh, I got it...faith...Because Jesus isn't teaching about faith here, but about how faithful believers should be coming to Him for removal of sin or risk losing their justification.
 
I missed all these earlier posts from before the thread was shut down. They are all just a rehash of my last post, except for the below on "commendable faith".

I did, but you rejected it. You rejecting it doesn't mean I didn't explain it.
By "explain it", I meant show me some kind of exegesis into the doctrine of "commendable faith" and how faith can be trusting, obedient faith in the Triune God, yet not justify. All you did was just do a word search for the word "commendable" and say "see". That is what you are trying to prove Abraham's faith was in Gen. 12 and there is absolutely no evidence whatsoever anywhere in Scripture that there is such a thing as a faith that trusts, obeys, has "works attached" yet doesn't justify. You can call it "commendable", "wonderful", super-duper", or whatever, but it is not described in Scripture. I see justifying faith described all over the place. In fact, this is the default unless there is a reason to think the faith being described is a dead faith, which is also described in detail in James 2. This "commendable faith" is just something you are making up so you don't have to admit to the overwhelming evidence of Abraham's justification by faith in Gen. 12.

"Women received back their dead by resurrection" (Hebrews 11:35 NASB italics in orig.)
Is this the faith that makes a person righteous (justified) in God's sight, or is it impossible that it can simply be faith that is approved (commended) by God?
I have seen other members complain about you only posting half verses to prove your point. You have done this before with me, and here is yet another example. Here is your half verse in context:

"By faith Rahab the harlot did not perish along with those who were disobedient, after she had welcomed the spies in peace. And what more shall I say? For time will fail me if I tell of Gideon, Barak, Samson, Jephthah, of David and Samuel and the prophets, who by faith conquered kingdoms, performed acts of righteousness, obtained promises, shut the mouths of lions, quenched the power of fire, escaped the edge of the sword, from weakness were made strong, became mighty in war, put foreign armies to flight. Women received back their dead by resurrection; and others were tortured, not accepting their release, so that they might obtain a better resurrection; and others experienced mockings and scourgings, yes, also chains and imprisonment. They were stoned, they were sawn in two, they were tempted, they were put to death with the sword; they went about in sheepskins, in goatskins, being destitute, afflicted, ill-treated (men of whom the world was not worthy), wandering in deserts and mountains and caves and holes in the ground. And all these, having gained approval through their faith, did not receive what was promised, (Heb 11:31-39 NASB)

Was Rahab justified? Were Gideon, Barak, Sampson, etc? They "by faith conquered kingdoms, performed acts of righteousness..." Can anyone "perform acts of righteousness" without being justified, Jethro? The "women [who] received back their dead" are mentioned in the same verses and included in the same "And all these" who "gained approval through their faith". What makes you think these women weren't justified? I'll ask again here, as I have been for about 2 months concerning vs.4-8 (which have again been ignored), what in the world makes you think the author is talking about people who were justified by their heroic faith, then, all of a sudden, without warning, the author switches to talking about a less-than-justifying faith when it comes to these women or the Israelites crossing the Red Sea or Abraham? How in the world could a Christian think that having faith that was "approved by God" didn't justify? Does God approve dead faith? Biblically, there are only two, dead and alive.

Until you prove your phantom "commendable faith" with Biblical examples (not personal ones), you will never convince anyone that there is such a thing, let alone that Abraham had it in Gen. 12 and that it was "divinely approved".
 
Jesus said it is if Peter, who is completely clean and does not need a bath, does NOT come to him for the washing of feet that he has no part in him (John 13:8). Having dirty feet has no effect on the fact that he is completely clean and does not need a whole bath. Refusing to submit to the foot washing is what will affect that.
As I said. I missed all these that came before the closing. Here is a good example of one of your mistakes. What you fail to grasp, here is that Peter has already "come to" Jesus, both physically and metaphorically. He already has faith. Once Peter understands what Jesus wants, he fully submits to the metaphorical "daily sin cleaning". Peter doesn't decline to have his feet washed out of his need to keep his "daily sin", but out of humility. He misunderstood Jesus at the outset, and never refused to have his sins "washed", never refused to "come to" Jesus. Please read that again. He refused to have his feet physically washed because Jesus was his master and Peter didn't fully understand the metaphor. Jesus is not talking about "continuing in the faith", or increasing faith or preaching the faith or anything at all about faith. You are cramming "faith" into these verses simply because you think they have to do with justification and your "doctrine" teaches that justification is by faith alone. This is pure and simple eisegesis...

You seem unable to grasp that Peter is a faithful believer, and this is why you are struggling so much with these verses. You seem unable to grasp that Jesus is teaching believers how to keep the justification they already have, by daily repentance. You want to shoehorn "faith" (coming to Jesus) into these simple verses, totally missing the point that Peter has already come to Him, he is already a believer. Jesus is explaining that believers must have their daily sins removed or risk losing justification. Retaining justification is not by "faith alone", but by living the faith you have. If you fail to live it, you will lose justification whether you have "faith" or not.

I hope this helps you.
 
LOL...completely contrary to my doctrine and common sense. Keeping daily sin "has no effect" on justification, yet in the verse above, keeping daily sin makes a believer have "no part with" Jesus, lose justification.
I'm amazed that after all this explanation you still don't understand the argument.

Why does Jesus say Peter "is completely clean"* and doesn't need a bath even though his feet are dirty? Your doctrine insists he does need to be re-justified because of the sin of his dirty feet, and thus the need for a process of justification. Your doctrine insists there is no such thing as being completely clean (which doesn't need to be repeated) and being dirty at the same time.

You have to explain this in order to prove C_______ doctrine is the correct doctrine. So far you haven't addressed it.

You can clear up this quagmire by simply showing how a believer can refuse to repent and have sins forgiven and still remain justified, while at the same time losing justification. Pretty simple...
That's not even the argument. You haven't been paying attention. The (former) believer does lose his justification if he does not seek Christ for the proverbial washing of his dirty feet, not just because he has dirty feet as your doctrine says.

The point you don't seem to want to address is the fact that Peter remained justified despite the fact he had dirty feet. His dirty feet did not rob him of his "completely clean"* status. But your doctrine says it does. You can clear up your doctrine's blatant contradiction with scripture by somehow showing us that Peter really did need a whole bath and really wasn't "completely clean"* with his dirty feet.

*"10 Jesus said to him, “He who has bathed needs only to wash his feet, but is completely clean; and you are clean" (John 13:10 NASB)



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I'm amazed that after all this explanation you still don't understand the argument.

Why does Jesus say Peter "is completely clean"* and doesn't need a bath even though his feet are dirty? Your doctrine insists he does need to be re-justified because of the sin of his dirty feet, and thus the need for a process of justification. Your doctrine insists there is no such thing as being clean and being dirty at the same time.

You have to explain this in order to prove C_______ doctrine is the correct doctrine. So far you haven't addressed it.


That's not even the argument. You haven't been paying attention. The (former) believer does lose his justification if he does not seek Christ for the proverbial washing of his dirty feet, not just because he has dirty feet as your doctrine says.

The point you don't seem to want to address is the fact that Peter remained justified despite the fact he had dirty feet. His dirty feet did not rob him of his "completely clean"* status. But your doctrine says it does. You can clear up your doctrine's blatant contradiction with scripture by somehow showing us that Peter really did need a whole bath and really wasn't "completely clean" with his dirty feet.

*"10 Jesus said to him, “He who has bathed needs only to wash his feet, but is completely clean; and you are clean" (John 13:10 NASB)
"Completely clean" and "the bath", as I have been saying from the beginning, and never waffling on, means WATER baptism! Please read that again...Water Baptism. At baptism, actual sins and original sin are removed (Acts 2:38). This puts the soul in the state capable of enjoying Heaven. This is what Jesus means by "completely clean". Peter only needs to have his daily sins removed, not be re-baptized. This is the only way there is not a contradiction here. Jesus is saying that Peter, a believer, has to come to Jesus to have his daily sins removed, but does not need to be re-baptized because his soul is already in a state of Grace. This doesn't mean it will always stay that way, as the example of Judas shows. "Completely clean" doesn't mean "never to lose justification in the future" So, we have Jesus saying to believers:

"Unless you have your daily sins forgiven by Me, you will lose justification. By virtue of your Baptism (bath) your soul is clean and capable of justification, but you can lose even that through sin, as Judas has."

There is my construct, and notice, no contradiction. To interpret "completely clean" as "justified forever" or justified "despite the stain of daily sin" is to construct a contradiction in light of Jesus telling Peter that he can lose his justification (have no part with Him) IF he doesn't have his daily sins removed. See, contradiction.

Now, stop distracting and deal with this blatant contradiction you have constructed. I will post it again for your convenience.

OK. A believer says "I refuse to have Jesus wash my feet. I refuse to allow Him to remove the stain of my daily sins".

1) Does this believer "have no part with" Jesus (lose justification)?

2) Is this believer "completely clean" (remaining justified)?
 
There is my construct, and notice, no contradiction. To interpret "completely clean" as "justified forever" or justified "despite the stain of daily sin" is to construct a contradiction in light of Jesus telling Peter that he can lose his justification (have no part with Him) IF he doesn't have his daily sins removed. See, contradiction.
You aren't paying attention to my argument. There is zero contradiction in my argument. Being "completely clean", despite his dirty feet (John 13:10), means he does not need to be made completely clean again as your doctrine says. That doesn't mean that it's impossible to lose that (you're adding that argument, not me). It means that the dirty feet isn't what can lose that for him. Jesus said so. What can lose that for him is being cut off from Jesus.

Now, with that said (and hopefully, now understood by you), why is it that your doctrine says Peter is NOT completely clean when he gets his feet dirty?
 
At baptism, actual sins and original sin are removed (Acts 2:38). This puts the soul in the state capable of enjoying Heaven. This is what Jesus means by "completely clean".
Having your sins forgiven is justification.

"24 and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption (the forgiveness of sins) that came by Christ Jesus." (Romans 3:24 NASB parenthesis mine)

"5 He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit, 6 whom He poured out upon us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior, 7 so that being justified by His grace we would be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life." (Titus 3:5 NASB)

The bath is indeed symbolic of justification, the washing away of sins by the grace of God. Jesus said Peter still had this washing even though he had dirty feet. Your doctrine says he needs to be re-justified.

Even in your own argument justification occurs at water baptism, so Peter's being "completely clean" in your doctrine still means justification. And Jesus said he didn't lose it just because his feet were dirty. But your doctrine says he does.
 
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Jesus is saying that Peter, a believer, has to come to Jesus to have his daily sins removed, but does not need to be re-baptized because his soul is already in a state of Grace.
Like a dung heap covered by snow. You're sounding really Protestant here.
Peter doesn't need to be re-baptised/re-justified because he is already in that state with God despite his dirty feet.
Very good.
 
You aren't paying attention to my argument. There is zero contradiction in my argument. Being "completely clean", despite his dirty feet (John 13:10), means he does not need to be made completely clean again as your doctrine says. That doesn't mean that it's impossible to lose that (you're adding that argument, not me). It means that the dirty feet isn't what can lose that for him. Jesus said so. What can lose that for him is being cut off from Jesus.
I'm following your argument better than you are. Your lack of clarity and failure to answer direct questions bear this out. Let me try it this way. I'll lay out your argument and you tell me where I'm not "paying attention".

Scripture: Peter said to Him, "Never shall You wash my feet!" Jesus answered him, "If I do not wash you, you have no part with Me." (Jhn 13:8 NASB)

Jethro: Peter said to Him, "Never shall you remove the stain of my daily sins!" Jesus answered him, "If I do not remove your sins, you will lose justification"

Scripture: Jesus said to him, "He who has bathed needs only to wash his feet, but is completely clean; and you are clean, but not all of you." (Jhn 13:10 NASB)

Jethro: Jesus said to him, "He who has been justified needs only his daily sins removed, but is justified despite whether his daily sins are removed or not, but not all of you."

Now, this is a contradiction and this is what you have been saying since you first posted these verses. I can go back and copy and paste your exact words if you want me to. I have asked twice for clarification and this will be the third time. Please answer the simple questions below:

A believer says "I refuse to have Jesus wash my feet. I refuse to allow Him to remove the stain of my daily sins".

1) Does this believer "have no part with" Jesus (lose justification)?

2) Is this believer "completely clean" (remaining justified)?

Now, with that said (and hopefully, now understood by you), why is it that your doctrine says Peter is NOT completely clean when he gets his feet dirty?
He is completely clean in the sense that he is baptized and his soul is capable of enjoying Heaven. He is justified at that point in time. That isn't to say that he is "justified despite the stain of his daily sins". Jesus says those exact words to him in v.8. The words "completely clean" don't carry with them a connotation of ongoing justification. They don't assume that Peter will remain justified "despite the stain of his daily sin". This is another one of your mistakes and why you are still having trouble comprehending Jesus' meaning here. This episode happened right before the last supper and we know what Peter did later that night. Was he "completely clean" after he denied Jesus three times?
 
Having your sins forgiven is justification.

"24 and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption (the forgiveness of sins) that came by Christ Jesus." (Romans 3:24 NASB parenthesis mine)

"5 He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit, 6 whom He poured out upon us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior, 7 so that being justified by His grace we would be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life." (Titus 3:5 NASB)

The bath is indeed symbolic of justification, the washing away of sins by the grace of God. Jesus said Peter still had this washing even though he had dirty feet. Your doctrine says he needs to be re-justified.

Even in your own argument justification occurs at water baptism, so Peter's being "completely clean" in your doctrine still means justification. And Jesus said he didn't lose it just because his feet were dirty. But your doctrine says he does.
Yes he did, and you agreed. He said that unless He removed his daily sins, left his feet dirty, he would "have no part with" Jesus. You have agreed that this means "unless Jesus removes Peter's daily sin, leaves his feet dirty, he loses justification". I can post your quotes that say those exact words. "Completely clean" does not mean "justified despite the stain of his daily sins". This is what you have been saying and what contradicts v.8, which says "If I do not remove your sins you will lose justification". This is contradictory, and blatantly obvious. Just admit you made a mistake, for goodness sake. This is getting embarrassing...
 
Like a dung heap covered by snow. You're sounding really Protestant here.
Peter doesn't need to be re-baptised/re-justified because he is already in that state with God despite his dirty feet.
Very good.
You are now only quoting half of my thoughts? And I thought you only saved half-quotes for Scripture. I guess I'm in good company. Here is what I really said:

"Jesus is saying that Peter, a believer, has to come to Jesus to have his daily sins removed, but does not need to be re-baptized because his soul is already in a state of Grace. This doesn't mean it will always stay that way, as the example of Judas shows. "Completely clean" doesn't mean "never to lose justification in the future".

If this is what Luther meant by "snow covered dung heap", I agree with him...And he agrees with the "C______" Church. :shame
 
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