Jay T said:
You may be right, Vic.
2 Thess. 2:1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and [by] our gathering together unto him,
2:2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
2:3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for [that day shall not come], except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
2:4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, showing himself that he is God.
2:5 Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things?
2:6 And now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time.
2:7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth [will let], until he be taken out of the way.
2:8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:
It is EXTREMELY difficult to use this as a "proof text" for several reasons. It seems that Paul wrote it in code, so that only those that had heard him would understand. Next, we don't know for sure whether or not Paul wrote "day of the Lord" or "Day of Christ." Neither do we know for sure what he might have meant, if he did write, "day of Christ." Some Greeks texts use the "day of the Lord", and others the "Day of Christ." Next, it seems that Paul just left out some words! We can assume what he meant, but do we really know?
I would like to point you to one verse, and work from there: In verse 6 Paul said, "And
now ye know what withholdeth..." HOW do we now know? It must be that Paul just told us, but in code so it does not jump out at us. So if we look at the previous verses, we should be able to determine what Paul wrote that told us who or what was doing the withholding. We know from verse 7, that whoever or whatever is doing the "holding," gets "taken out of the way. So lets go back and see if there is anything "removed" or "taken."
2:5 Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things?
Nope! Nothing could possibly be "taken out" or removed here.
2:4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, showing himself that he is God.
Nope! Nothing here but a description of the beast/antichrist.
2:3
Let no man deceive you by any means: for [that day shall not come], except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
At first glance, there is nothing "removed" here, or "taken out of the way." However, if we translate this as it used to be in some texts (Coverdale, Geneva, Tyndale, An Expanded Translation by Kenneth Wuest ), it would read:
2:3
Let no man deceive you by any means: for [that day shall not come], except there come a departure first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
If "departure" is what Paul had in mind, rather than "departure from the faith," then we know by other rapture verses, that this departure is indeed a "removing" or a "taken out of the way," for in the rapture, we are "caught up" by God Himself.
It would seem very likely that this is the meaning Paul wanted, for he did say, "And now ye know," just as if he had just written the answer. And, indeed, it seems as if He did.
Can the meaning "departure" come from "apostasia?" Certainly. There are good arguments on both sides of this, as departing from the faith, or "a spacial departure," as in the rapture. However, Paul said, "and know you know," showing us that he had just written who was doing the restraining, and that that "who" would be 'taken out of the way."
With these thoughts, it seems clear that people had heard about a letter as from Paul, or read it, that they were already "in" the day of the Lord. In other words, that "day" had started sometime previous to this moment. These folks were very upset by this. Why? Because they had heard Paul teach them that the rapture would come before the day of the Lord! It is the only common sense reason for them to be upset.
So Paul tells them, concerning the coming of Christ and the gathering together unto Him [rapture], that "that day," i.e. the "day of the Lord" [Christ] could not possibly have already started, for he had previously told them that that day of the Lord could not start until the rapture came first, and then the man of sin be revealed.
Another proof of Paul's meaning here is in verse 5: "Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things?" What do we have recorded that Paul had previously taught them? Did he ever mention anything about a "departure from the faith," in his first letter? No. But he did write to them about the rapture in that letter.
Therefore, even though this is a very difficult passage, and should not be used as a "proof text" for any rapture theory, these verses
could mean a pretrib rapture. However, proof should be found elsewhere, due to the ambiguity in these verses.
Coop