What does this mean??
Does it mean that if they were included fully, will riches to the gentiles will be that much greater??
Hi Rob and welcome to CF.net. I hope you are blessed here in Jesus’ name. Could the following be what you're seeking?
Col 3:11 Where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free: but Christ is all, and in all.
Col 3:12 Put on therefore,
as the elect of God, holy and beloved, bowels of mercies, kindness, humbleness of mind, meekness, longsuffering;
Romans 11:
12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!
who is Paul talking about in this statement when he said their transgressions?
Dear Rob, I’m not quite sure the intent of what you’re asking, so I’ll just give a simple answer to start with. First understand that Romans Chapters 9, 10, & 11 are basically directed to Israel’s past, present, and future. What was Israel’s sin and loss? In Jeremiah 3:8 their backsliding resulted in a bill of divorce.
Now God was not done with them for Jesus came first to them and we read in John 1:11 He came unto his own, and his own received him not.
Acts 13:46 Then Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, It was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles.
The following is certainly worthy of being a blessing to the Gentiles.
Col 1:25 Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;
Col 1:26 Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints:
Col 1:27 To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory.