The context of the passage is Paul contrasting the many gods of the pagans with the one God of the Christians. Paul says there is one God, the Father. No matter how we understand stand the phrase 'one Lord Jesus Christ'. Jesus is precluded from being God because Paul states unequivocally that the one God is the Father.
And there is the breakdown in logic which I have been trying, to no avail, to get an anti-Trinitarian to address. If that is going to be your argument, then you
must also acknowledge that the Father is unequivocally precluded from being Lord. If not, then you are not being logically consistent, applying logic only when it suits your position. Yet, we know that the Father is called Lord in many places.
As I have given several times already:
1Co 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist. (ESV)
First,
if "one God, the Father" precludes the Son from also being God,
then it necessarily follows that "one Lord, Jesus Christ" precludes the Father from also being Lord. It cannot be otherwise. That is basic logic and sound reasoning. Yet, we know that the Father is also Lord.
Second,
if "from whom are all things" speaks of the Father's absolute existence,
then it necessarily follows that "through whom are all things" speaks of the Son's absolute existence. Again, it cannot be otherwise and is basic logic and sound reasoning.
Yes, the passage certainly is about there being only one God, and in so showing that, Paul appears to appeal to Deut 6:4, but expanding on it to include the Son as Lord ("LORD").
Even Jesus said the Father is the only True God.
In the same way Paul does: in opposition to false gods; it does not preclude Jesus from being God. John's gospel, from start to finish, teaches us that Jesus is God in human flesh; two natures in one person.
If we understand Scripture any way that doesn't align with these statements we've got something wrong.
I agree.
How can we understand 'One Lord Jesus Christ.' In the ultimate sense the Father is the only Lord. Paul states this.
That thou keep this commandment without spot, unrebukeable, until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ: Which in his times he shall shew, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords; Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.
And now not only do you have a contradiction, because your position on 1 Cor 8:6 necessarily precludes the Father from being Lord, but Christ is also called "Kings of kings and Lord of lords" twice. Of God:
Deu 10:17 For the LORD your God is God of gods and Lord of lords, the great, the mighty, and the awesome God, who is not partial and takes no bribe. (ESV)
Psa 136:3 Give thanks to the Lord of lords, for his steadfast love endures forever; (ESV)
1Ti 6:15 which he will display at the proper time—he who is the blessed and only Sovereign, the King of kings and Lord of lords, (ESV)
Of Jesus:
Rev 17:14 They will make war on the Lamb, and the Lamb will conquer them, for he is Lord of lords and King of kings, and those with him are called and chosen and faithful.” (ESV)
Rev 19:16 On his robe and on his thigh he has a name written, King of kings and Lord of lords. (ESV)
So, if "Lord of lords" is in an ultimate sense of the Father, then the Son, too, is spoken of as the Lord of lords in an ultimate sense.
Paul tells us that the Father is the only Lord of Lords.
So, Paul disagrees with John, then, is that what you're saying?
So why then does Paul say, 'One Lord Jesus Christ?'
Because Jesus is also God. Note that your argument ignores John's statements of Jesus also being the Lord of lords, as well as the second argument I've given regarding 1 Cor 8:6. That second argument also is seen in John 1:3, Col 1:16-17, and Heb 1:2:
Joh 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made. (ESV)
1Co 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist. (ESV)
Col 1:16 For by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things were created through him and for him.
Col 1:17 And he is before all things, and in him all things hold together. (ESV)
Heb 1:2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world. (ESV)
In each case, the argument is the same:
if everything was created through or by the Son,
then it necessarily follows that the Son cannot be something created. That is to say, there cannot be a time when the Son did not exist, otherwise each passage above is false. Therefore, he is a necessary being, which is God alone.
Further, John 1:3 is supported by John 1:10 and Heb 1:2 is supported by Heb 1:10-12, where the Father applies Psalm 102:25-27, a Psalm about Yahweh creating,
to the Son.
Joh 1:10 He was in the world, and the world was made through him, yet the world did not know him. (ESV)
Heb 1:10 And, “You, Lord, laid the foundation of the earth in the beginning, and the heavens are the work of your hands;
Heb 1:11 they will perish, but you remain; they will all wear out like a garment,
Heb 1:12 like a robe you will roll them up, like a garment they will be changed. But you are the same, and your years will have no end.” (ESV)
Because all authority has been given to Him. God has delegated all authority to Jesus. As I've stated God said that His name is in His Messinger. Thus His Messenger stands in the place of God or the One Lord.
That doesn't preclude Christ from also being God.