Dougcho
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- Oct 30, 2024
- 86
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- #61
Yes, John was the only one to call Jesus "the Word".I would like to know where Jesus says he is the Word. Did he ever mention that to anyone, particularly when mentioning his preexistence?
Jesus, who referred to himself as the Son of God, told his listeners several times that he had come from heaven and both implicitly and explicitly claimed equality with the Father, all of which implies eternal preexistence. He also said that the Father loved him and that he shared in the Father's glory prior to creation, both of which imply eternal preexistence. But not once does he say he preexisted as the Word or ever refer to himself as the Word. So, if he wasn't the Son of God prior to the incarnation, he certainly mislead his listeners to believe that he was.
Why do you think that only John refers to the pre-incarnate Christ as the Word? Why do the rest of the NT writers simply refer to Jesus as the Son when referring to his existence prior to the incarnation, ? Yes, they also refer to him as Jesus Christ, but since Jesus is the name given to the God-man, I would argue that they're implicitly referring to his Sonship.
Perhaps the strongest support for eternal Sonship is found in the incarnation itself as it relates to the Trinity. Without the eternal relationship of the Father and the Son, we have no idea what sort of relationship existed between them. Indeed, the Father couldn't not have been the Father prior to the incarnation. That then leads to ambiguity and lack of force for John 3:16:
Joh 3:16 “For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life. (ESV)
That speaks of the infinite cost of our sin and the lengths to which the Father was willing to go because he loved us so much--"he gave his only Son." Fathers, and indeed mothers, would very much understand the force of the Father giving his only Son. But, if the Son only became the Son at the incarnation, then that gets largely lost.
When it comes to the Trinity, it's interesting that you state "God the Father, God the Word, and God the Holy Spirit," but there is no Son. How can there be "God the Father" if there is no God the Son? It would mean that God the Father became the Father after the incarnation, so we don't know who he was prior, other than the First Person of the Trinity. That leaves us with the First Person of the Trinity, the Word, and the Holy Spirit. Seems rather odd, yes? It would also mean that the title "Son of God" refers to Jesus's humanity or at least create ambiguity as to whether it refers to his deity or his humanity.
No. The Father is the Father. The Holy Spirit cannot be said to have "played the role of Jesus' father" without implying some sort of sexual relations with Mary.
When Jesus said He came from heaven ...
He was referring to the Word who came from heaven to become Himself (Jesus).
The equality with God was referring to the Word who became Himself (Jesus).
I am dealing ONLY with what the NT says, nothing else!